CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 2


CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 2


51. The following characteristics of an orthodontic wire describes its energy storage capacity:1 Mark

A. RangeB. Resilience
C. FormabilityD. Proportional limit

52. All of the following are clinicalfeatures of mouth breathing except:1 Mark

A. Anterior marginal gingivitisB. An expressionless or blank face
C. Retroclined mandibular incisorsD. Narrow maxillary arch with possibility of posterior crossbite

53. ………… should bedone before performing proximal stripping in lower incisors.1 Mark

A. Peck and Peck analysisB. Carey’s analysis
C. Pont’s analysisD. Bolton’s analysis

54. Appearance of adductor sesamoid ofthe thumb in Fishman’s skeletal maturity method is suggestive of:1 Mark

A. SMI 3B. SMI 4
C. SMI 5D. SMI 6

55. In the mandibulararch where the canines often erupt before the premolars………… technique of serialextraction is followed.1 Mark

A. Dewel’sB. Modified Dewel’s
C. Tweed’sD. Nance’s

56.The correct sequence of steps indistraction osteogenesis is:1 Mark

A. Latency-osteotomy-distraction-consolidation-remodellingB. Osteotomy-latency-distraction-consolidation-remodelling
C. Osteotomy-distraction-latency-remodelling-consolidationD. Distraction-remodelling-latency-osteotomy-consolidation

57. The correct sequence of steps indistraction osteogenesis is:1 Mark

A. Latency-osteotomy-distraction-consolidation-remodellingB. Osteotomy-latency-distraction-consolidation-remodelling
C. Osteotomy-distraction-latency-remodelling-consolidationD. Distraction-remodelling-latency-osteotomy-consolidation

58. During “Eastman correction” incephalometry, ……….. angle is adjusted.1 Mark

C. IMPAD. Y- axis


Pattern ofextraction in class II camouflage treatment is:1 Mark

A. Mandibular incisors onlyB. Mandibular first premolars only
C. Maxillary second premolars and mandibular first premolarsD. Maxillary first premolars and mandibular second premolars

60. Themyofunctional appliance of choice in a patient with residual growth is:1 Mark

A. ActivatorB. Bionator
C. FrankelD. Forsus

61. Latest technique by which bone graft is obtainedwithout damaging vital structure, vessels/veins is based on?1 Mark

A. Piezoelectric vibrationB. Osteotome
C. Ultrasonic/soft lasersD. Electrocautery

62. Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminatedby1 Mark

A. GingivectomyB. Supragingival curettage
C. lnterseptal massage with stimulatorsD. Osseous recontouring

63. The treatment option for a large area ofgingival enlargement (>6 teeth) with osseous defects and (limitedkeratinized tissue)1 Mark

A. GingivectomyB. Curettage
C. Periodontal flapD. Gingivoplasty

64. Knife used for gingivectomy is:1 Mark

A. KirklandB. Orbans
C. MerifieldD. Burkett’s

65. Aggressive periodontitis is always associated with poor oral hygiene. Chronic periodontitis is a condition found exclusively in older patients.1 Mark

A. Both statements are TRUEB. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSED. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.


A 44-year-old patient presents a third of thedentition with 5 mm of clinical attachment loss, bleeding upon probing, none ofthe teeth being mobile, and probing depths ranging between 4 and 6 mm. What isthe most probable diagnosis? 1 Mark

A. Localized chronic moderate periodontitisB. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis
C. Localized chronic severe periodontitisD. Generalized chronic moderate periodontitis

67. What is the source of the final tissue in a free gingival graft?1 Mark

A. Stratum basal of the epitheliumB. Adipose tissue
C. Lamina propria of the connective tissueD. Stratum spinosum of epithelium

68. Why use a palatal approach for osseousperiodontal surgery?1 Mark

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgeryB. Less sensitivity for the patient
C. More subgingival calculus on the palatal surfacesD. Less bleeding

69. Tobacco chewing Is thought to be contributing Ipredisposing factor in which condition?1 Mark

A. Desquamative gingivitisB. ANUG
C. Juvenile periodontitisD. Erythema multiforme

70. Bacterial enzyme capable of altering the groundsubstance of PDL is1 Mark

A. PeroxidaseB. Collagenase
C. LysozymeD. Hyaluronidase


Wavelength of soft tissue diode laser periodontaluse is:1 Mark

A. 24,000-3 I ,000 nmB. 564-800 nm
C. 564-980 nmD. 10,200-14,000 nm


Which hormone increases the gingival vascularpermeability and increases chances of gingival disease caused by infective microorganisms:1 Mark

A. EstrogenB. Progesterone
C. OxytocinD. Human chorionic Gonadotropin

73. Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are:1 Mark

A. Lower first molars and upper anteriorB. Lower premolars and upper canines
C. Lower first molars and upper incisors and premolarsD. Lower centrals, laterals and upper molars

74. A periodontometer is a device used to measure:1 Mark

A. Gingival bone countB. Debris and material alba
C. Tooth mobilityD. Gingival bleeding

75. The severe alveolar bone loss in patients with juvenile periodontitis is associated with:1 Mark

A. Impaired osteoblastic activityB. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis
C. Increased phagocytosisD. Increased macrophage migration

76. Muxsell’s system is used for:1 Mark

A. Quality of colorB. Quantity and quality of color
C. Quantity of colorD. None

77.  Moisture resistant (Moisture active) sealants among the following is: 1 Mark

A. CyanoacrylatesB. Bis.GMA
C. MethylmethacrylatesD. None

78. The function of fluoride flux during soldering of stainley steel is1 Mark

A. It forms a surface protective layerB. It decreases the melting point
C. It dissolves chromic oxide layerD. None

79. Lateral incisor cannot be used as an abutment due to: 1 Mark

A. UnaestheticB. Insufficient peri-cemental area
C. Arch rotation might be interferenceD. None

80. Chamfer finish line is used in:1 Mark

A. Labial side of all ceramic crownB. Lingual of all ceramic crown
C. Lingual of PFMD. Labial of PFM

81. The most common trigger factor for bruxism is:1 Mark

A. TMJ dysfunctionB. Pericoronitis
C. Discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relationD. Acute periodontal disease

82. To transfer the axis orbital plane, we require:1 Mark

A. Arbitrary facebowB. Kinematic facebow
C. Either arbitrary or kinematic facebowD. An ear bow only

83. An edentulous patient has a complaint that his denture becomes loose several hours after wearing. This indicates: 1 Mark

A. An improper extension of denture baseB. Deflective occlusal contact
C. A high vertical dimensionD. An over-extended denture flange

84. Which of the following impression material shows most tear resistance? 1 Mark

A. PolysulphideB. Addition silicone
C. Condensation siliconeD. Polyether

85. Which of the following is not a true wax?1 Mark

A. Paraffin waxB. Ozokerite
C. Coccoa butterD. Candelilla

86. Fractures of porcelain is prevented by: 1 Mark

A. Using group function occlusionB. Canine guided occlusion
C. Preventing balance side contactD. Using high glazed contact

87. Anterior vibrating line is located on: 1 Mark

A. Soft palatal tissueB. Hard palatal tissue
C. Either hard or soft palatal tissueD. Posterior to fovea palatini

88. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is1 Mark

A. Modified ridge lapB. Ridge lap
C. OvoidD. Sanitary

89. Correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates:1 Mark

A. Vacuum in posterior part of palateB. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
C. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary dentureD. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

90. Impression material of choice for flabby tissue is:1 Mark

A. Irreversible hydrocolloidB. Putty silicone
C. Impression compoundD. Heavy body silicone

91. Endodontic related paresthesia may be caused by which of the following intracanal material?1 Mark

A. Sargenti pasteB. N-2 paste
C. RC-2B pasteD. All of the above

92. Odontoclast differ from osteoclast in that,except1 Mark

A. They are smallerB. Have smaller sealing zones
C. Have fewer nucleiD. Have dissimilar enzymatic properties

93. Intrapulpal temperature rise of 10 degree Fahrenheit can cause Irreversible pulpal pathosis in1 Mark

A. 15% of teeth evaluatedB. 30% of teeth evaluated
C. 50% of teeth evaluatedD. 60% of teeth evaluated

94. Three basic reactions that tend to protect the pulp against caries are except1 Mark

A. A decrease in dentin permeabilityB. Formation of dead tract
C. Tertiary dentin formationD. Inflammatory and immune reactions

95. The blood volume of pulp represents about1 Mark

A. 3% of pulpal wet weightB. 10% of pulpal wet weight
C. 20% of pulpal wet weightD. 33% of pulpal wet weight

96. The induced pleuripotent stem cells are unsuitable for immediate common regenerative endodontic  practice in regenerative endodontics because of1 Mark

A. The lack of control over uninhibited proliferation and differentiationB. Legal and ethical concerns similar to embryonic stem cells
C. Both of aboveD. None of the above

97. Which of the following is not a bio ceramic material?1 Mark

A. Pro root MTAB. Retroplast
C. Endosequence rapid root repair materialD. Iroot SP

98. Which of the following is wrong regarding bone wax?1 Mark

A. Advocated for controlling hemostasis and debris in bony crypt during periradicular surgeryB. Bone wax accelerates wound healing
C. Composed of 88% beeswax and 12% isopropyl palmitateD. None

99. The goal of surgical procedures in surgical endodontics should be1 Mark

A. RepairB. Regeneration
C. Formation of healthy scarD. Any one of above

100. Which of the following statement is wrong1 Mark

A. Xylene and ecalyptol dissolves gutta percha slowly and only approach the effectiveness of chloroform when heatedB. Chloroform have been shown to effect the chemical composition of dentin
C. Rectified turpentine has a higher level of toxicity than chloroformD. None of the above

part 3


  1. Notice: Trying to get property 'ID' of non-object in /home5/betamedi/dentistryexplorer.com/wp-content/plugins/download-manager/libs/class.Apply.php on line 1210

    Notice: Trying to get property 'ID' of non-object in /home5/betamedi/dentistryexplorer.com/wp-content/plugins/download-manager/libs/class.Apply.php on line 1210

    Had been better if explanation were there for must of the questions


Please enter your comment!
Please enter your name here