CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 2

CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 2

51. The following characteristics of an orthodontic wire describes its energy storage capacity:1 Mark

A. Range	B. Resilience
C. Formability	D. Proportional limit

52. All of the following are clinicalfeatures of mouth breathing except:1 Mark

A. Anterior marginal gingivitis	B. An expressionless or blank face
C. Retroclined mandibular incisors	D. Narrow maxillary arch with possibility of posterior crossbite

53. ………… should bedone before performing proximal stripping in lower incisors.1 Mark

A. Peck and Peck analysis	B. Carey’s analysis
C. Pont’s analysis	D. Bolton’s analysis

54. Appearance of adductor sesamoid ofthe thumb in Fishman’s skeletal maturity method is suggestive of:1 Mark

A. SMI 3	B. SMI 4
C. SMI 5	D. SMI 6

55. In the mandibulararch where the canines often erupt before the premolars………… technique of serialextraction is followed.1 Mark

A. Dewel’s	B. Modified Dewel’s
C. Tweed’s	D. Nance’s

56.The correct sequence of steps indistraction osteogenesis is:1 Mark

A. Latency-osteotomy-distraction-consolidation-remodelling	B. Osteotomy-latency-distraction-consolidation-remodelling
C. Osteotomy-distraction-latency-remodelling-consolidation	D. Distraction-remodelling-latency-osteotomy-consolidation

57. The correct sequence of steps indistraction osteogenesis is:1 Mark

A. Latency-osteotomy-distraction-consolidation-remodelling	B. Osteotomy-latency-distraction-consolidation-remodelling
C. Osteotomy-distraction-latency-remodelling-consolidation	D. Distraction-remodelling-latency-osteotomy-consolidation

58. During “Eastman correction” incephalometry, ……….. angle is adjusted.1 Mark

A. ANB	B. FMA
C. IMPA	D. Y- axis

59.

Pattern ofextraction in class II camouflage treatment is:1 Mark

A. Mandibular incisors only	B. Mandibular first premolars only
C. Maxillary second premolars and mandibular first premolars	D. Maxillary first premolars and mandibular second premolars

60. Themyofunctional appliance of choice in a patient with residual growth is:1 Mark

A. Activator	B. Bionator
C. Frankel	D. Forsus

61. Latest technique by which bone graft is obtainedwithout damaging vital structure, vessels/veins is based on?1 Mark

A. Piezoelectric vibration	B. Osteotome
C. Ultrasonic/soft lasers	D. Electrocautery

62. Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminatedby1 Mark

A. Gingivectomy	B. Supragingival curettage
C. lnterseptal massage with stimulators	D. Osseous recontouring

63. The treatment option for a large area ofgingival enlargement (>6 teeth) with osseous defects and (limitedkeratinized tissue)1 Mark

A. Gingivectomy	B. Curettage
C. Periodontal flap	D. Gingivoplasty

64. Knife used for gingivectomy is:1 Mark

A. Kirkland	B. Orbans
C. Merifield	D. Burkett’s

65. Aggressive periodontitis is always associated with poor oral hygiene. Chronic periodontitis is a condition found exclusively in older patients.1 Mark

A. Both statements are TRUE	B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE	D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

66.

A 44-year-old patient presents a third of thedentition with 5 mm of clinical attachment loss, bleeding upon probing, none ofthe teeth being mobile, and probing depths ranging between 4 and 6 mm. What isthe most probable diagnosis? 1 Mark

A. Localized chronic moderate periodontitis	B. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis
C. Localized chronic severe periodontitis	D. Generalized chronic moderate periodontitis

67. What is the source of the final tissue in a free gingival graft?1 Mark

A. Stratum basal of the epithelium	B. Adipose tissue
C. Lamina propria of the connective tissue	D. Stratum spinosum of epithelium

68. Why use a palatal approach for osseousperiodontal surgery?1 Mark

A. Palatal embrasures are wider, allowing for better access to osseous surgery	B. Less sensitivity for the patient
C. More subgingival calculus on the palatal surfaces	D. Less bleeding

69. Tobacco chewing Is thought to be contributing Ipredisposing factor in which condition?1 Mark

A. Desquamative gingivitis	B. ANUG
C. Juvenile periodontitis	D. Erythema multiforme

70. Bacterial enzyme capable of altering the groundsubstance of PDL is1 Mark

A. Peroxidase	B. Collagenase
C. Lysozyme	D. Hyaluronidase

71.

Wavelength of soft tissue diode laser periodontaluse is:1 Mark

A. 24,000-3 I ,000 nm	B. 564-800 nm
C. 564-980 nm	D. 10,200-14,000 nm

72.

Which hormone increases the gingival vascularpermeability and increases chances of gingival disease caused by infective microorganisms:1 Mark

A. Estrogen	B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin	D. Human chorionic Gonadotropin

73. Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease are:1 Mark

A. Lower first molars and upper anterior	B. Lower premolars and upper canines
C. Lower first molars and upper incisors and premolars	D. Lower centrals, laterals and upper molars

74. A periodontometer is a device used to measure:1 Mark

A. Gingival bone count	B. Debris and material alba
C. Tooth mobility	D. Gingival bleeding

75. The severe alveolar bone loss in patients with juvenile periodontitis is associated with:1 Mark

A. Impaired osteoblastic activity	B. Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis
C. Increased phagocytosis	D. Increased macrophage migration

76. Muxsell’s system is used for:1 Mark

A. Quality of color	B. Quantity and quality of color
C. Quantity of color	D. None

77.  Moisture resistant (Moisture active) sealants among the following is: 1 Mark

A. Cyanoacrylates	B. Bis.GMA
C. Methylmethacrylates	D. None

78. The function of fluoride flux during soldering of stainley steel is1 Mark

A. It forms a surface protective layer	B. It decreases the melting point
C. It dissolves chromic oxide layer	D. None

79. Lateral incisor cannot be used as an abutment due to: 1 Mark

A. Unaesthetic	B. Insufficient peri-cemental area
C. Arch rotation might be interference	D. None

80. Chamfer finish line is used in:1 Mark

A. Labial side of all ceramic crown	B. Lingual of all ceramic crown
C. Lingual of PFM	D. Labial of PFM

81. The most common trigger factor for bruxism is:1 Mark

A. TMJ dysfunction	B. Pericoronitis
C. Discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relation	D. Acute periodontal disease

82. To transfer the axis orbital plane, we require:1 Mark

A. Arbitrary facebow	B. Kinematic facebow
C. Either arbitrary or kinematic facebow	D. An ear bow only

83. An edentulous patient has a complaint that his denture becomes loose several hours after wearing. This indicates: 1 Mark

A. An improper extension of denture base	B. Deflective occlusal contact
C. A high vertical dimension	D. An over-extended denture flange

84. Which of the following impression material shows most tear resistance? 1 Mark

A. Polysulphide	B. Addition silicone
C. Condensation silicone	D. Polyether

85. Which of the following is not a true wax?1 Mark

A. Paraffin wax	B. Ozokerite
C. Coccoa butter	D. Candelilla

86. Fractures of porcelain is prevented by: 1 Mark

A. Using group function occlusion	B. Canine guided occlusion
C. Preventing balance side contact	D. Using high glazed contact

87. Anterior vibrating line is located on: 1 Mark

A. Soft palatal tissue	B. Hard palatal tissue
C. Either hard or soft palatal tissue	D. Posterior to fovea palatini

88. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is1 Mark

A. Modified ridge lap	B. Ridge lap
C. Ovoid	D. Sanitary

89. Correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates:1 Mark

A. Vacuum in posterior part of palate	B. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
C. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture	D. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

90. Impression material of choice for flabby tissue is:1 Mark

A. Irreversible hydrocolloid	B. Putty silicone
C. Impression compound	D. Heavy body silicone

91. Endodontic related paresthesia may be caused by which of the following intracanal material?1 Mark

A. Sargenti paste	B. N-2 paste
C. RC-2B paste	D. All of the above

92. Odontoclast differ from osteoclast in that,except1 Mark

A. They are smaller	B. Have smaller sealing zones
C. Have fewer nuclei	D. Have dissimilar enzymatic properties

93. Intrapulpal temperature rise of 10 degree Fahrenheit can cause Irreversible pulpal pathosis in1 Mark

A. 15% of teeth evaluated	B. 30% of teeth evaluated
C. 50% of teeth evaluated	D. 60% of teeth evaluated

94. Three basic reactions that tend to protect the pulp against caries are except1 Mark

A. A decrease in dentin permeability	B. Formation of dead tract
C. Tertiary dentin formation	D. Inflammatory and immune reactions

95. The blood volume of pulp represents about1 Mark

A. 3% of pulpal wet weight	B. 10% of pulpal wet weight
C. 20% of pulpal wet weight	D. 33% of pulpal wet weight

96. The induced pleuripotent stem cells are unsuitable for immediate common regenerative endodontic  practice in regenerative endodontics because of1 Mark

A. The lack of control over uninhibited proliferation and differentiation	B. Legal and ethical concerns similar to embryonic stem cells
C. Both of above	D. None of the above

97. Which of the following is not a bio ceramic material?1 Mark

A. Pro root MTA	B. Retroplast
C. Endosequence rapid root repair material	D. Iroot SP

98. Which of the following is wrong regarding bone wax?1 Mark

A. Advocated for controlling hemostasis and debris in bony crypt during periradicular surgery	B. Bone wax accelerates wound healing
C. Composed of 88% beeswax and 12% isopropyl palmitate	D. None

99. The goal of surgical procedures in surgical endodontics should be1 Mark

A. Repair	B. Regeneration
C. Formation of healthy scar	D. Any one of above

100. Which of the following statement is wrong1 Mark

A. Xylene and ecalyptol dissolves gutta percha slowly and only approach the effectiveness of chloroform when heated	B. Chloroform have been shown to effect the chemical composition of dentin
C. Rectified turpentine has a higher level of toxicity than chloroform	D. None of the above

part 3