CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 3

0
60

CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 3

cee-based-mds-entrance-mock-exam-answer-part-3

101. Ideal properties of endodontic sealer are following except1 Mark

A. No staining of tooth structureB. No shrinkage on setting
C. Soluble in tissue fluidsD. Bacteriostatic or at least doesn’t encourage bacterial growth

102. “Batt tips” of endodontic instruments refers to1 Mark

A. Cutting tipB. Non cutting tip
C. Partially cutting tipD. No relation with endodontic instrument tip

103. Largest tooth volume is of1 Mark

A. Mandibular 1st molarB. Maxillary 1st molar
C. Maxillary 2nd molarD. Mandibular 2nd molar

104. Which type of hypersensitivity reactions are most common with amalgam restorations?1 Mark

A. TypeIB. TypeIII
C. TypeIID. Type IV

105. The prescription toothpaste contains how much fluoride for prevention of dental caries?1 Mark

A. 1000ppmB. 1500ppm
C. 5000ppmD. 2000ppm

106. Distobuccal root of upper first molar is supplied by :1 Mark

A. Middle superior alveolar nerveB. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Infraorbital nerveD. Anterior superior alveolar nerve

107. lip switch vestibuloplasty is also called1 Mark

A. Submucosal vestibuloplastyB. Transpositional flap vestibuloplasty
C. Labial frenectomyD. Maxillary augumentation procedure

108. In Champy technique, the plate used  for  fixation of a mandibular body fracture is :1 Mark

A. Dynamic compression plateB. Placed in zone of tension
C. Placed in zone of compressionD. Placed in neutral zone

109. T1N2M0 for an oral squamous cell carcinoma falls under which staging1 Mark

A. Stage IIB. Stage III
C. Stage IVaD. Stage Ivb

110.

Enblock  resection  refers to :1 Mark

A. Resection without continuity defectB. Resection with continuity defect
C. Partial resectionD. Composite resection

111.

A 12 year old male patient had a history offall injury 1 week back sustaining blow to the chin and laceration to theforearm. He now complaints of limited mouth opening  and tenderness over right tmj . Radiographicexamination rules out possible fracture but a joint aspiration reveals thickpurulent material. Which organism is likely to be associated with thisinfection :1 Mark

A. Neisseria sp.B. Streptococcus sp.
C. Prevotella sp.D. Staphylococcus sp.

112. Gordinsky and Holyoke classification of potential  spaces, “Lincoln’s highway” belongs to1 Mark

A. Space 1B. Space 2
C. Space 3D. Space 4

113. Markowitz et al classification of NOE fracture , comminuted fracture with attachement of medial canthal tendon to a size able bony fragment  falls under :1 Mark

A. Type I fractureB. Type II fracture
C. Type III fractureD. Type IV fracture

114. Diacapitular fracture refers to:1 Mark

A. fracture through head of the condyleB. atrophic mandibular condyle fracture
C. bilateral condylar fractureD. fracture of the coronoid process

115. In case of isolated mandibular body fracture , when occlusal force is applied closer to the fracture site1 Mark

A. Tension appears in upper border, compression in lower borderB. compression appears in upper border, tension in lower border
C. tension and compression cancels out each otherD. only tension in the mid body region

116. Extraoral  closed mouth technique of V3 block :1 Mark

A. Gow gatesB. Kantorowicz
C. HalsteadD. Braun

117. A patient complaints of sudden onset of limited jaw movement. On examination limited mouth opening of 20 mm with deflection to the right, limited protrusion and limited left lateral mandibular movement . The most likely diagnosis is :1 Mark

A. Disc displacement with reduction – right tmjB. Disc displacement with reduction – left tmj
C. Disc displacement without reduction – right tmjD. Disc displacement without reduction – left tmj

118. “Cheerleader syndrome “ is characterized by :1 Mark

A. Condylar hypoplasiaB. Aplasia of condyle
C. Idopathic condylar resorptionD. Bifid condyle

119.

During extraction of erupted premolars to facilitate orthodontics, which tooth is most likely to have a root fracture during extraction?1 Mark

A. Maxillary first premolarB. Mandibular first premolar
C. Maxillary second premolarD. Maxillary second premolar

120.

During CPR, chest compression should be?1 Mark

A. 2 inch/secondB. 2 inch/5 seconds
C. 1.5 inch/secondD. 1 inch/second

121. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride except1 Mark

A. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus b) c)B. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus
C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetusD. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions

122. Many congenital abnormalities occur due to interaction between genetic factors and environmental influences. This type of association is known as multi-factorial inheritance. All are true regarding multi-factorial inheritance except:
1 Mark

A. Risk is high in close relativesB. Incidence of abnormality is high in relatives of severely affected patients
C. Females affected more than males in some conditionsD. Consanguinity is commonly seen

123. There is a positive correlation between two variables. Exact change in one will cause how much change in other can be determined by
1 Mark

A. Regression equationB. Kappa statistics
C. Chi square testD. Correlation

124. A child administered dose of vitamin A routinely is an example of:
1 Mark

A. Health proinotionB. Specific protection
C. Primodial preventionD. Disability limitation

125. Student ‘t’ test measures1 Mark

A. Difference between 2 mean of small sampleB. Difference between 2 medians of small sample
C. Mean of any sampleD. Test significance of difference in means of large samples

126. Genetic Factor for cancer is 1 Mark

A. 5p(FHIT)B. 7p(CDKN2A)
C. 17p(TP53)D. All of the above

127. Plumber vinson syndrome is seen in deficiency of1 Mark

A. Beta-carotenenB. Ascorbic Acid
C. Retinoic acidD. Vitamin E

128. In study of caries, the “cause and effect” relation can be best demonstrated by1 Mark

A. Descriptive and experimental studyB. Descriptive and analytical study
C. Descriptive, analytical and experimental studyD. Experimental and analytic study

129. Before declaring that a patient is HIV positive, ELISA is confirmed by Western Blot:1 Mark

A. To reduce chance of false positive resultB. To reduce error in experimental technique
C. Because western blot is a highly sensitive test for HIVD. To measure the amount of actively replicating HIV virus

130. Dental fluorosis is seen if above optimal levels of fluoride are administered between the ages of:1 Mark

A. 6 to 12 yearsB. Birth to 12 years
C. 3-6 yearsD. Birth to 6 years 188

131. ‘Bell’s palsy’ is due to sudden paralysis of facial nerve at level of:1 Mark

A. Internal auditory meatusB. Sphenopalatine ganglion
C. Stylomastoid foramenD. Submandibular ganglion

132. Cleft lip and cleft palate is a/an:1 Mark

A. Autosomal disorderB. Recessive disorder
C. Multifactorial disorderD. Chromosomal disorder

133. On the basis of mode of secretion, salivary gland is a/an:1 Mark

A. Holocrine glandB. Merocrine gland
C. Apocrine glandD. Eccrine gland

134.

Bones of vaults of skull & facial bones are:1 Mark

A. Membranous boneB. Cartilagenous bone
C. Membranocartilagenous boneD. Somatic bone

135. All of the following are motor branches of facial nerve supplying face except:1 Mark

A. TemporalB. Ophthalmic
C. ZygomaticD. Marginal mandibular

136. Carbohydrate mostly responsible for dental caries is:1 Mark

A. GlucoseB. Sucrose
C. FructoseD. Maltose

137. Respiratory quotient of fats is:1 Mark

A. 0.7B. 0.8
C. 0.9D. 1.0

138. Fluoride used in collection of blood samples for glucose estimation inhibits the enzyme:1 Mark

A. HexokinaseB. Enolase
C. GlucokinaseD. G6Pase

139. Which of the following method is used for the identification of RNA molecules:1 Mark

A. Northern blottingB. Southern blotting
C. Western blottingD. Autoradiography

140. Sucrose is made up of:1 Mark

A. Glucose and glucoseB. Glucose and fructose
C. Glucose and galactoseD. Glucose and mannose

141. Which of the following is not an common oral manifestation in patient with AIDS: 1 Mark

A. LeukoplakiaB. Severe periodontitis
C. Pseudomembranous candidiasisD. Xerostomia

142. Negri bodies are found in:1 Mark

A. Herpes virusB. Adeno virus
C. Measles virusD. Rabies virus

143. Before undergoing dental procedures in patient with valvular heart disease, prophylactic medication is given against:1 Mark

A. Staphylococcus aureusB. Bacteroids
C. Streptococcus pyogensD. Peptostreptococcus

144. Process by which articles/surfaces is made free of microorganism including spores is known as:1 Mark

A. DisinfectionB. Sterilization
C. AntisepsisD. Autoclave

145. All of the following are common micro-flora of oral cavity except:1 Mark

A. StreptococciB. Escherichia coli
C. BacteroidesD. Lactobacillus

146. Mode of action of Lignocaine at cell membrane is:1 Mark

A. Blockage of voltage gated potassium channelB. Blockage of voltage gated sodium channel
C. Blockage of voltage gated calcium channelD. Blockage of voltage gated chloride channel

147. Which of the following is most suitable for the treatment of gestational diabetes:1 Mark

A. GlibenclamideB. Glipizide
C. MetforminD. Insulin

148. Pyridoxine is given prophylactically with anti-tubercular drugs to counter act the sideeffect of:1 Mark

A. EthambutolB. Pyrazinamide
C. RifampicinD. Isoniazide

149. A drug is said to be potent when: 1 Mark

A. It has a rapid onset of actionB. The amount needed to produce a certain response is less
C. It produces maximal responseD. It produces minimal side effects

150. A 6 year boy with febrile convulsion lasting more than five minutes has beengiven IV lorazepam. What might be the most likely serious side effect of drug: 1 Mark

A. Anaphylactic shockB. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Intermittent porphyriaD. Apnoea

PART 4

LEAVE A REPLY

Please enter your comment!
Please enter your name here