CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer part 3
101. Ideal properties of endodontic sealer are following except1 Mark
| A. No staining of tooth structure | B. No shrinkage on setting |
| C. Soluble in tissue fluids | D. Bacteriostatic or at least doesn’t encourage bacterial growth |
102. “Batt tips” of endodontic instruments refers to1 Mark
| A. Cutting tip | B. Non cutting tip |
| C. Partially cutting tip | D. No relation with endodontic instrument tip |
103. Largest tooth volume is of1 Mark
| A. Mandibular 1st molar | B. Maxillary 1st molar |
| C. Maxillary 2nd molar | D. Mandibular 2nd molar |
104. Which type of hypersensitivity reactions are most common with amalgam restorations?1 Mark
| A. TypeI | B. TypeIII |
| C. TypeII | D. Type IV |
105. The prescription toothpaste contains how much fluoride for prevention of dental caries?1 Mark
| A. 1000ppm | B. 1500ppm |
| C. 5000ppm | D. 2000ppm |
106. Distobuccal root of upper first molar is supplied by :1 Mark
| A. Middle superior alveolar nerve | B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve |
| C. Infraorbital nerve | D. Anterior superior alveolar nerve |
107. lip switch vestibuloplasty is also called1 Mark
| A. Submucosal vestibuloplasty | B. Transpositional flap vestibuloplasty |
| C. Labial frenectomy | D. Maxillary augumentation procedure |
108. In Champy technique, the plate used for fixation of a mandibular body fracture is :1 Mark
| A. Dynamic compression plate | B. Placed in zone of tension |
| C. Placed in zone of compression | D. Placed in neutral zone |
109. T1N2M0 for an oral squamous cell carcinoma falls under which staging1 Mark
| A. Stage II | B. Stage III |
| C. Stage IVa | D. Stage Ivb |
110.
Enblock resection refers to :1 Mark
| A. Resection without continuity defect | B. Resection with continuity defect |
| C. Partial resection | D. Composite resection |
111.
A 12 year old male patient had a history offall injury 1 week back sustaining blow to the chin and laceration to theforearm. He now complaints of limited mouth opening and tenderness over right tmj . Radiographicexamination rules out possible fracture but a joint aspiration reveals thickpurulent material. Which organism is likely to be associated with thisinfection :1 Mark
| A. Neisseria sp. | B. Streptococcus sp. |
| C. Prevotella sp. | D. Staphylococcus sp. |
112. Gordinsky and Holyoke classification of potential spaces, “Lincoln’s highway” belongs to1 Mark
| A. Space 1 | B. Space 2 |
| C. Space 3 | D. Space 4 |
113. Markowitz et al classification of NOE fracture , comminuted fracture with attachement of medial canthal tendon to a size able bony fragment falls under :1 Mark
| A. Type I fracture | B. Type II fracture |
| C. Type III fracture | D. Type IV fracture |
114. Diacapitular fracture refers to:1 Mark
| A. fracture through head of the condyle | B. atrophic mandibular condyle fracture |
| C. bilateral condylar fracture | D. fracture of the coronoid process |
115. In case of isolated mandibular body fracture , when occlusal force is applied closer to the fracture site1 Mark
| A. Tension appears in upper border, compression in lower border | B. compression appears in upper border, tension in lower border |
| C. tension and compression cancels out each other | D. only tension in the mid body region |
116. Extraoral closed mouth technique of V3 block :1 Mark
| A. Gow gates | B. Kantorowicz |
| C. Halstead | D. Braun |
117. A patient complaints of sudden onset of limited jaw movement. On examination limited mouth opening of 20 mm with deflection to the right, limited protrusion and limited left lateral mandibular movement . The most likely diagnosis is :1 Mark
| A. Disc displacement with reduction – right tmj | B. Disc displacement with reduction – left tmj |
| C. Disc displacement without reduction – right tmj | D. Disc displacement without reduction – left tmj |
118. “Cheerleader syndrome “ is characterized by :1 Mark
| A. Condylar hypoplasia | B. Aplasia of condyle |
| C. Idopathic condylar resorption | D. Bifid condyle |
119.
During extraction of erupted premolars to facilitate orthodontics, which tooth is most likely to have a root fracture during extraction?1 Mark
| A. Maxillary first premolar | B. Mandibular first premolar |
| C. Maxillary second premolar | D. Maxillary second premolar |
120.
During CPR, chest compression should be?1 Mark
| A. 2 inch/second | B. 2 inch/5 seconds |
| C. 1.5 inch/second | D. 1 inch/second |
121. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride except1 Mark
| A. Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus b) c) | B. Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride reaching the fetus |
| C. Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus | D. Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions |
122. Many congenital abnormalities occur due to interaction between genetic factors and environmental influences. This type of association is known as multi-factorial inheritance. All are true regarding multi-factorial inheritance except:
1 Mark
| A. Risk is high in close relatives | B. Incidence of abnormality is high in relatives of severely affected patients |
| C. Females affected more than males in some conditions | D. Consanguinity is commonly seen |
123. There is a positive correlation between two variables. Exact change in one will cause how much change in other can be determined by
1 Mark
| A. Regression equation | B. Kappa statistics |
| C. Chi square test | D. Correlation |
124. A child administered dose of vitamin A routinely is an example of:
1 Mark
| A. Health proinotion | B. Specific protection |
| C. Primodial prevention | D. Disability limitation |
125. Student ‘t’ test measures1 Mark
| A. Difference between 2 mean of small sample | B. Difference between 2 medians of small sample |
| C. Mean of any sample | D. Test significance of difference in means of large samples |
126. Genetic Factor for cancer is 1 Mark
| A. 5p(FHIT) | B. 7p(CDKN2A) |
| C. 17p(TP53) | D. All of the above |
127. Plumber vinson syndrome is seen in deficiency of1 Mark
| A. Beta-carotenen | B. Ascorbic Acid |
| C. Retinoic acid | D. Vitamin E |
128. In study of caries, the “cause and effect” relation can be best demonstrated by1 Mark
| A. Descriptive and experimental study | B. Descriptive and analytical study |
| C. Descriptive, analytical and experimental study | D. Experimental and analytic study |
129. Before declaring that a patient is HIV positive, ELISA is confirmed by Western Blot:1 Mark
| A. To reduce chance of false positive result | B. To reduce error in experimental technique |
| C. Because western blot is a highly sensitive test for HIV | D. To measure the amount of actively replicating HIV virus |
130. Dental fluorosis is seen if above optimal levels of fluoride are administered between the ages of:1 Mark
| A. 6 to 12 years | B. Birth to 12 years |
| C. 3-6 years | D. Birth to 6 years 188 |
131. ‘Bell’s palsy’ is due to sudden paralysis of facial nerve at level of:1 Mark
| A. Internal auditory meatus | B. Sphenopalatine ganglion |
| C. Stylomastoid foramen | D. Submandibular ganglion |
132. Cleft lip and cleft palate is a/an:1 Mark
| A. Autosomal disorder | B. Recessive disorder |
| C. Multifactorial disorder | D. Chromosomal disorder |
133. On the basis of mode of secretion, salivary gland is a/an:1 Mark
| A. Holocrine gland | B. Merocrine gland |
| C. Apocrine gland | D. Eccrine gland |
134.
Bones of vaults of skull & facial bones are:1 Mark
| A. Membranous bone | B. Cartilagenous bone |
| C. Membranocartilagenous bone | D. Somatic bone |
135. All of the following are motor branches of facial nerve supplying face except:1 Mark
| A. Temporal | B. Ophthalmic |
| C. Zygomatic | D. Marginal mandibular |
136. Carbohydrate mostly responsible for dental caries is:1 Mark
| A. Glucose | B. Sucrose |
| C. Fructose | D. Maltose |
137. Respiratory quotient of fats is:1 Mark
| A. 0.7 | B. 0.8 |
| C. 0.9 | D. 1.0 |
138. Fluoride used in collection of blood samples for glucose estimation inhibits the enzyme:1 Mark
| A. Hexokinase | B. Enolase |
| C. Glucokinase | D. G6Pase |
139. Which of the following method is used for the identification of RNA molecules:1 Mark
| A. Northern blotting | B. Southern blotting |
| C. Western blotting | D. Autoradiography |
140. Sucrose is made up of:1 Mark
| A. Glucose and glucose | B. Glucose and fructose |
| C. Glucose and galactose | D. Glucose and mannose |
141. Which of the following is not an common oral manifestation in patient with AIDS: 1 Mark
| A. Leukoplakia | B. Severe periodontitis |
| C. Pseudomembranous candidiasis | D. Xerostomia |
142. Negri bodies are found in:1 Mark
| A. Herpes virus | B. Adeno virus |
| C. Measles virus | D. Rabies virus |
143. Before undergoing dental procedures in patient with valvular heart disease, prophylactic medication is given against:1 Mark
| A. Staphylococcus aureus | B. Bacteroids |
| C. Streptococcus pyogens | D. Peptostreptococcus |
144. Process by which articles/surfaces is made free of microorganism including spores is known as:1 Mark
| A. Disinfection | B. Sterilization |
| C. Antisepsis | D. Autoclave |
145. All of the following are common micro-flora of oral cavity except:1 Mark
| A. Streptococci | B. Escherichia coli |
| C. Bacteroides | D. Lactobacillus |
146. Mode of action of Lignocaine at cell membrane is:1 Mark
| A. Blockage of voltage gated potassium channel | B. Blockage of voltage gated sodium channel |
| C. Blockage of voltage gated calcium channel | D. Blockage of voltage gated chloride channel |
147. Which of the following is most suitable for the treatment of gestational diabetes:1 Mark
| A. Glibenclamide | B. Glipizide |
| C. Metformin | D. Insulin |
148. Pyridoxine is given prophylactically with anti-tubercular drugs to counter act the sideeffect of:1 Mark
| A. Ethambutol | B. Pyrazinamide |
| C. Rifampicin | D. Isoniazide |
149. A drug is said to be potent when: 1 Mark
| A. It has a rapid onset of action | B. The amount needed to produce a certain response is less |
| C. It produces maximal response | D. It produces minimal side effects |
150. A 6 year boy with febrile convulsion lasting more than five minutes has beengiven IV lorazepam. What might be the most likely serious side effect of drug: 1 Mark
| A. Anaphylactic shock | B. Cardiac arrhythmia |
| C. Intermittent porphyria | D. Apnoea |
