CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer

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CEE Based MDS Entrance Mock Exam Answer

cee-based-mds-entrance-mock-exam-answer
  1. Recommended dose of prednisolone for thetreatment of desquamative gingivitis?1 Mark
A. Daily dose of 40 to 50 mg and maintenance dose of 5 to 10 mgB. Daily dose of 30 to 40 mg and maintenance dose of 5 to 10 mg
C. Daily dose of 30 to 40 mg and maintenance dose of 10 to 20 mgD. Daily dose of 40 to 50 mg and maintenance dose of 10 to 20 mg

(Carranza 11th ed 158] The recommended dose of prednisolone in the treatment of desquamative gingivitis is daily dose of 30 – 40mg and gradually reduced to daily maintenance of 5-lOmg.

2. The minimum mesiodistal space required for placement of two standard diameter implants (4.0 mm diameter) between teeth is1 Mark

A. 8 mmB. 20 mm
C. 10 mmD. 14 mm

Carranza 11th ed 1044 Fig 69-9 / 10th ed 1094] The minimum M-D space required for placement of implants Diameter of Implants Space Narrow (3.25mm) 6mm Standard (4.1mm) 7mm Wide (5mm) 8mm Wide (6mm) 9mm Two standard 4.1mm implants 14mm

3. The plasma coating of a Titanium Dental implant (TPS) is done to1 Mark

A. To increase its acceptance in boneB. To make the Implant Biocompatible
C. To avoid contamination of the ImplantD. To improve implant anchorage power in bone

Applying calcium phosphate (CaP) coating on implants improves the osteoconductive (osseointegration) properties. Different methods have been developed to coat metal implants with CaP layer such as plasma spraying, biomimetic and electrophoretic deposition. By means of plasma polymerization, positively charged, nanometric thin coating can be applied to implant surfaces. Titanium plasma sprayed (TPS) surface results in increased surface area and it has been proposed that TPS improves implant anchorage power in bone (Osseo integration).

4. First implant system developed?1 Mark

A. Noble biocare – BranemarkB. ITI – Strauman
C. Noble biocare – Steri OssD. Astra

[Carranza 9th ed 893] The first implant system that ADA had provisionally accepted in 1986 is the Noble Biocare System developed by Branemark.

5. Pharmacological agent that inhibits the differentiation of osteoclasts through its action on RANK
1 Mark

A. NSAIDsB. SERMS
C. OPGD. CMTS

Carranza 11th ed 205] RANKL means Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand. It is a member of the TNF super family. The RAN KL system is an essential mediator of osteoclast formation, function and survival. RANKL binds RANK on osteoclasts or osteoclast precursors to stimulate differentiation into osteoclasts. It is also essential for the survival of osteoclasts and thereby playing critical role in bone resorption. Osteoprotegerin (OPG) acts as RAN KL inhibitor and prevents the recruitment or differentiation of osteoclasts. Thus they affect the pool of mature osteoclasts and their activity. High RANKL and low OPG levels are reported in sites with active periodontal breakdown compared to sites with healthy gingiva.

6. All of the following are angiomatous syndrome except1 Mark

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndromeB. Bannayan-Zonana syndrome
C. Klippel-Trenaunay syndromeD. Maffucci’s syndrome

7.

The sequence of fall of hematopoietic factors during whole body radiation is:1 Mark

A. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th ErythrocyteB. 1st Granulocyte, 2nd Lymphocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th Erythrocyte
C. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Erythrocyte, 4th ThrombocyteD. 1st Erythrocyte, 2nd Thrombocyte, 3rd Granulocyte, 4th Lymphocyte

8. Undetectable death of embryo occurs during first few days of conception when exposure range is:1 Mark

A. 0.1-0.3 GyB. 0.4- 0.7 Gy
C. 0.8- 1 GyD. 1-3 Gy

Ref: White and Pharoah, 1st south asia ed

9. Herpes simplex is seen in:1 Mark

A. <10 yrs of ageB. 12-15 yrs of age
C. 25-30 yrs of ageD. 55-60 yrs of age

Exp: newborn upto 6months of age are protected from HSV infection by placentally transferred antibodies. After 6months of age, the incidence increases and reaches peak between 2-3 years of age. Ref: Burkett, 10th ed

10. Id reaction is associated with:1 Mark

A. Aphthous ulcerB. Herpetic stomatitis
C. SyphillisD. Candidiasis

Exp: Id reactions are due to allergic response to candida antigens. These develop vesiculopapular rash due to allergy. Ref: Burkett, 9th ed.

11. Steven Johnson syndrome involves:1 Mark

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactionB. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactionD. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Exp: it occurs due to deposition of immune complex in superficial vasculature of skin and mucosa hence, mediated through type III hypersensitivity. Ref: Burkett, 10th ed

12. The attack of cluster headache can be aborted by:1 Mark

A. Morphine administrationB. Breathing oxygen
C. Aspirin administrationD. Sublingual nitroglycerine

Exp: use of 100% oxygen at onset of episode helps in diagnosis as well as leads to rapid resolution of symptoms. Ref: Burkett 11th ed

13.The patient with Raynaud’s syndrome puts his hand in cold water, the hand appears:1 Mark

A. RedB. Yellow
C. WhiteD. Blue

Exp: Due to intense vasospasm of peripheral arteries there is change in color of finger tips as response to cold. Ref: Burkett 10th ed.

14. Leafless fruit laden tree on sialogram indicates1 Mark

A. Mucoepidermoid carcinomaB. Acinar cell carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenomaD. Sjogren’s syndrome

Exp: Sialographs of Sjogren’s syndrome shows punctuate cavitary defects which produces cherry blossom or leafless fruit laden tree appearance. Ref: Burkett 10th ed

15. Neoplastic transformation of leukoplakia is most commonly seen in:1 Mark

A. Buccal mucosaB. Floor of mouth
C. Lateral border of tongueD. Palate

Exp: floor of mouth followed by lateral border of tongue are high risk sites for malignant transformation. Ref: Burkett 11th ed

16. A person with glaucoma should not receive:1 Mark

A. SedativesB. Vasoconstrictors
C. Anti-sialogoguesD. Local anesthetics

Exp: it produces mydriasis and precipitates glaucoma. Ref: KDT 6th ed.

17. The symptomatology of a patient is, increase pain during opening wide, protruding against resistance, on clenching teeth and protruding against resistance with unilateral separator but no pain on clenching on separator (unilaterally). The pathology would be in,1 Mark

A. Medial pterygoidB. Inferior lateral pterygoid
C. Superior lateral pterygoidD. Masseter

Exp: Pain on clenching on separator is feature of pathology in superior head of lateral pterygoid while without separator is a feature of pathology in inferior head. Ref:  Management of temporomandibular disorders and occlusion, Okeson 7th ed.

18. T4a N2 M0 falls under ……..stage of oral cancer1 Mark

A. Stage IIB. Stage III
C. Stage IVAD. Stage IV B

Ref: Burkett 12th ed

19.  Half the image in CT is overlapped in eachslice. This means the pitch is1 Mark

A. 0.5B. 1
C. 1.5D. 2

Exp: Pitch is amount of patient movement compared to width of image acquired. Ref: White and Pharoah, 1st south asia ed

20. The typical constituents of developer and their function includes:1 Mark

A. Phenidione: Builds contrastB. Hydroquinone: Helps bring out image
C. Sodium sulfite: PreservativeD. Benzotriazole: Hardener

Ref: Eric Whaites, 4th edition

21. Gorgoyle cells are seen in:1 Mark

A. Gauchers diseaseB. Hurler syndrome
C. Lipoid proteinosisD. Hereditary fructose intolerance

22. A characteristic starry sky appearance seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma is due to:1 Mark

A. Aggregated macrophages, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debrisB. Scattered macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris
C. Aggregated macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with cellular debrisD. Scattered macrophages,, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris

23.

The ‘Abtropfung’ effect is the histological feature of:1 Mark

A. Common blue nevusB. Intradermal nevus
C. Junctional nevusD. Compound nevus

24. In cicatricial pemphigoid the antigen boundedby IgG on the epidermal side of salt split technique is:1 Mark

A. XVII collagenB. Epiligrin
C. Laminin 5D. Desmoglein 3

25. Neoperiostosis of bones is seen in:1 Mark

A. OsteopetrosisB. Paget’s disease
C. Osteogenesis imperfectD. Infantile hyperostosis

26. Which of the following organism is present in deep carious lesion rather than in incipient lesion1 Mark

A. LactobacilliB. Streptococci
C. ActinomycesD. Veillonella

27.

Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic space of:1 Mark

A. AmeloblastomaB. Adenoylmphoma
C. Odontogenic keratocystD. Dentigerous cyst

28.

Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic spaceof:1 Mark

A. AmeloblastomaB. Adenoylmphoma
C. Odontogenic keratocystD. Dentigerous cyst

29. Most aggressive cyst which causes hollowing of mandible is:1 Mark

A. Periapical cystB. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
C. Primordial cystD. Dentigerous cyst

30. A 40 year old woman has ameloblastoma, histologica lfeatures are:1 Mark

A. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulumB. Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction
C. Central palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose stellate reticulumD. Central loose stellate reticulum with marked cellular atypia and mitotic figures

31. One of the following amino acid is not present in carisolv:1 Mark

A. LysineB. Glutamic acid
C. GlycineD. Leucine

32. Supernumerary teeth are in all except 1 Mark

A. Ectodermal dysplasiaB. Cleft palate cases
C. Gardner’s syndromeD. Cleidocranial dysostosis

33. What unfavourable oral sequel is associated withprolonged use of antibiotics in children?1 Mark

A. Aphthous ulcersB. Acute necrotising gingivitis
C. Herpes simplex infectionD. Moniliasis

34. Stimulus response (SR) theory is also known as:1 Mark

A. Physical restraintB. Aversive conditioning
C. Behaviour shapingD. Tell, show and do technique

Exp: Behaviour learning is the establishment of connection between stimulus and response. Ref: Mc Donald, 8th ed.

35. Most common cause of failure of class IIrestoration in children is:1 Mark

A. Marginal failureB. Proximal box fracture
C. Inadequate widthD. Inadequate depth

Exp: most common cause of failure of class II restoration in primary teeth is proximal box fracture while in permanent teeth is marginal failure. Ref: mc Donald 5th ed.

36. The change in color of traumatized primary incisor usually results from all except:1 Mark

A. Diffusion of biliveridin into dentinal tubulesB. Internal resorption of dentin within the crown
C. Development of heavy layer of secondary dentinD. Laceration of periodontal fibres

Ref: Mc Donald 8th ed.

37. Sealant programme is done to:1 Mark

A. All individuals in fluoridated and non-fluoridated areaB. Young and adolescent in non-fluoridated area
C. Children in non-fluoridated areaD. Children in fluoridated area

Exp: Use of pit and fissure sealants would substantially reduce the occurrence of dental caries in population beyond that already achieved by fluorides and other preventive sources. Ref: Mc Donald, 8th ed.

38. Routine IOPAR of child reveal supernumerary tooth between central incisors. The dentist should:1 Mark

A. Wait and watchB. Remove supernumerary tooth after its eruption
C. Extract tooth immediately without damage to permanent teethD. Remove tooth if it develops cyst around

Exp: Each case with supernumerary tooth must be diagnosed and evaluated according to own peculiarities but in general such teeth are removed as early as possible. Ref: Mc Donald 5th ed

39. The first organism to appear in oral cavity:1 Mark

A. Streptococcus sanguisB. Streptococcus mtans
C. LactobacilliD. Streptococcus salivarius

Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st ed.

40. The child has parrot like repetitive speech. The most likely diagnosis is:1 Mark

A. Cerebral palsyB. Autism
C. Marfan’s syndromeD. Down’s syndrome

Exp: Autism is disturbance of mental and emotional disturbance that causes problem in learning and communication and is manifested in first 3 years of life. Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st ed.

41. The unfavorable oral sequele associated with prolonged use of antibiotics in children is:1 Mark

A. Hairy tongueB. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Herpes simplexD. Moniliasis

42. The ratio of formalin to cresol in formocresol is:1 Mark

A. 3:2B. 1:2
C. 2:3D. 2:1

Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st ed

43. Source of calcium in dentinal bridge is:1 Mark

A. BloodB. Calcium hydroxide
C. SalivaD. ICF

Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st ed

44. The bacteria responsible for causing nursing bottle caries are:1 Mark

A. LactobacillusB. Streptococcus and Lactobacillus
C. Streptococcus, Lactobacillus and ActinomycesD. Streptococcus, Lactobacillus and Veillonella

Ref: Shobha Tandon 1st ed

45. In the field of pedodontics, Sir Arthur Nowak is known for:1 Mark

A. ModellingB. Dental home concept
C. HOMED. Desensitization

46. The space maintainer of choice inmandibular arch in a patient with missing D before the eruption of permanentincisors is:1 Mark

A. Lingual holding archB. Nance holding arch
C. Band and loopD. Distal shoe

47. Class II elastic is given from:1 Mark

A. Maxillary canine to maxillary first molarB. Mandibular canine to mandibular first molar
C. Maxillary canine to mandibular first molarD. Mandibular canine to maxillary first molar

48. According to Van Limborgh’s theoryabnormal habits fall under:1 Mark

A. Local epigenetic factorsB. General epigenetic factors
C. Local environmental factorsD. General environmental factors

49. In Ackerman-Profitt system ofclassification step 4 is representative of:1 Mark

A. ProfileB. Vertical relationship
C. Sagittal relationshipD. Transverse relationship

50. Decompensation is done as a partof:1 Mark

A. Conventional orthodonticsB. Pre-surgical orthodontics
C. Camouflage orthodonticsD. Interceptive orthodontics

PART 2

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