CEE Based Model MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution Part 3

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MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution. These test are dedicated to all MDS Entrance Aspirants. Keep on practicing our exam series. Here we have 200 question based on syllabus provided by Medical Education Committee from all subject that are covered in Bachelor of Dental Surgery. Send us feedback via message or mail so that we can improve our exams. Those who want to participate in live test please click her

MDS-Entrance-Exam-Questions
MDS Entrance Exam Questions

MDS Entrance Exam Questions

101. G.V.Black concluded that the following areas on tooth surface are relatively non self cleanable:1 Mark

A. Pits and fissures.B. Tips and cusps.
C. Crests of marginal/ crusing ridges.D. All inclined planes of cusps and ridges.
E. Fossae.

102. Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at:1 Mark

A. Cavosurface margin.B. The contact area
C. The isthmus area.D. Proximal box
E. Gingival floor.

103. Toilet of cavity is:1 Mark

A. Removal of debris by washing with H2O.B. Removal of debris by cold air spray.
C. Removal of debris by hot air spray.D. Washing the cavity with soap solution.
E. Washing the cavity with medicament

104. In class V design 3 cavity preparation,extension look like:1 Mark

A. Y.B. Snake eye
C. MoustacheD. Dove-tail.
E. Kidney shape

105. Tooth surfaces involved in class II design 6 are:1 Mark

A. Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces.B. Occlusal, facial and lingual surfaces.
C. Proximal and facial/ lingual surfaces.D. Proximal, axial angle and facial cervica
E. Two or more surfaces of endodontically treated tooth.

106.

A pregnant woman in second trimesterfalls into syncope during extraction of upper molar. She should be kept in1 Mark

A. Trendelenburg positionB. Head down towards her feet
C. Right lateral positionD. Left lateral position

107.

Maximum amount of xylocaine wihthout adrenaline that can begiven in 100kg adult is1 Mark

A. 300mgB. 440mg
C. 500mgD. 660mg

108.

Infraorbital nerve block was given with 2% lidocainehydrochloride solution. Patient complains of burning sensation in eye andswelling of lower eyelid. It is due to1 Mark

A. Tortous course of middle meningeal arteryB. LA reached the eyelid via infraorbital foramen
C. Reaction is due to preservative in LA and it will subside in some timeD. It is not related to LA

109.

Most common complication of condylar injuries in children1 Mark

A. PainB. Fracture of glenoid fossa
C. Internal derangement of TMJD. Ankylosis of TMJ

110.

Bucket handle type of fracture are seen in1 Mark

A. ChildrenB. Females
C. Edentulous personsD. Young adults

111.

The first step in management of head injury is1 Mark

A. Secure airwayB. IV mannitol
C. IV dexamethasoneD. Blood transfusion

112.

In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty in openingthe mouth is caused by impingement of 1 Mark

A. Maxillary tuberosityB. Ramus of mandible
C. Condyle of mandibleD. Coronoid process of mandible

113.

A patient developed diplopia after midface fracture. This isdue to entrapment of which muscle1 Mark

A. Inferior rectusB. Lateral rectus
C. Superior obliqueD. Inferior oblique

114.

Frequent dislocation of TMJ is due to1 Mark

A. Spasm of muscles of masticationB. The articular eminence being smaller
C. Decreased free way spaceD. All of the above

115. Oro antral fistulamost commonly occurs during extraction of maxillary1 Mark

A. 1st premolarB. 2nd premolar
C. 1st molarD. 3rd molar

116.

The joint which best simulates the TMJ histologically andmorphologically is1 Mark

A. 5th costochondral graftB. 3rd metatarsal graft
C. Sternoclavicular graftD. None of the above

117.

The aspirate from a keratocyst will have1 Mark

A. A low souble protein contentB. A high soluble protein content
C. Cholesterol crystalD. Inflammatory cells

118.

Ameloblastoma is best managed by1 Mark

A. MarsupializationB. Enucleation
C. CurettageD. Resection

119.

WHO 2017 classification of ameloblastoma included followingwhich was not included in 2005 classification1 Mark

A. Unicystic ameloblastomaB. Extraosseous or peripheral ameloblastoma
C. Desmoplastic ameloblastomaD. Metastatic ameloblastoma

120.

Which of the following is the indication of TMJ total jointreplacement?1 Mark

A. Inflammatory arthritis involving TMJ not responsive to other modalities of treatmentB. Recurrent fibrosis and or bony ankylosis not responsive to other modalities of treatment
C. Failed tissue grafts (bone and soft tissues)D. All of the above

121.  Active search for disease in an apparently healthyindividual is  1 Mark

A. MonitoringB. Sentinel surveillance
C. Case findingD. screening

122. The increase in caries incidence is seen when the salivaryflow is1 Mark

A. < 5ml/minB. < 6ml/min
C. < 7ml/minD. < 8ml/min

123. The insurance concept is essentially one of 1 Mark

A. Budgeting paymentB. Subsidise financing
C. Sharing riskD. Capitation

124. Examining a patient in dental office is equivalent tocommunity dental health if  1 Mark

A. SurveyingB. Analysing of data
C. Programme planningD. Evaluation

125. The dye used in the “Reductase enzyme” (caries activitytest) is1 Mark

A. DiazoeresorcinolB. Bromocresol green
C. 1 % acid red in propylene glycolD. Methyl blue

126. Fluoride is added to drinking water in the form of1 Mark

A. hydrofluorosilicic acidB. fluoride ions
C. APFD. none of the above

127. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of 1 Mark

A. Causal relationships between exposure and effectB. Association between two variables
C. Correlation between two variablesD. Agreement between two observations

128. Berkesonian bias in a case control study is a bias due to:1 Mark

A. Presence of confounding factorsB. Different admission rates for different diseases
C. Bias introduced by investigatorD. Patient can not recall or gives false information

129. Genetic factors, Age, Gender & Socioeconomic status arealso known as1 Mark

A. Risk IndicatorsB. Risk Determinants
C. Risk MarkersD. Risk Factors

130. When the black band of a CPITN probe is completelyvisible while in gingival sulcus, it means 1 Mark

A. The individual has advanced periodontal diseaseB. The individual has pockets between 4 and 5 mm
C. The individual needs comprehensive periodontal surgeryD. The individual has calculus and needs scaling and oral hygiene instructions

131. Broca’s area is located in which lobe of brain:1 Mark

A. Frontal lobeB. Temporal lobe
C. Occipital lobeD. Olfactory lobe

132. Cleft lip is repaired at age of:1 Mark

A. 1 to 6 monthB. 6 to 12 months
C. 10 to 18 monthsD. 18 to 24 months

133.  Ossification of mandible starts in:1 Mark

A. CondyleB. Mental foramen
C. CoronoidD. Alveolar process

134. Which of the following salivary gland drains into vestibule of mouth opposite to the crown of upper 2nd molar tooth:1 Mark

A. Sub Mandibular glandB. Parotid gland
C. Sub Lingual glandD. Palatine gland

135. Skull is made up of …….. bones:1 Mark

A. 20B. 22
C. 24D. 14

136. Common side effects of insulin are except:1 Mark

A. Weight gainB. Hyperglycemia
C. LipodystrophyD. Edema

137. Anion gap is mainly due to:1 Mark

A. SulfatesB. Phosphates
C. ProteinsD. Nitrates

138. Most commonly used local anesthetic, Lignocaine acts on:1 Mark

A. Voltage gated potassium channelB. Voltage gated sodium channel
C. Voltage gated calcium channelD. Voltage gated chloride channel

139. In comparison to blood plasma, Saliva is:1 Mark

A. IsotonicB. Hypotonic
C. HypertonicD. Depends upon food intake

140. Site of absorption of bile is:1 Mark

A. ColonB. Duodenum
C. IleumD. Stomach

141. Source of nitrogen in the urea cycle are1 Mark

A. Arginine & AmmoniaB. Glutamate & Ammonia
C. Aspartate & AmmoniaD. Uric acid & Ammonia

142. Which of the following is non essential amino acid:1 Mark

A. AlanineB. Isoleucine
C. LeucineD. Tryptophan

143. Primary extracellular buffering system is:1 Mark

A. Na-K systemB. Phosphate system
C. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid systemD. Albumin system

144. Cholesterol is transported to extra hepatic tissues by:1 Mark

A. IDLB. HDL
C. LDLD. VLDL

145. The major source of fuel for brain after several weekof starvation is:1 Mark

A. Ketone bodiesB. Glucose
C. Fatty acidsD. Glycerol

146. Which of the following cancer is prevented by immunization with BCG vaccine:1 Mark

A. Bladder carcinomaB. Cervical carcinoma
C. Hepatocellular carcinomaD. Stomach carcinoma

147. Plummer-vinson syndrome increases the risk of:1 Mark

A. Adenocarcinoma of stomachB. SCC of stomach
C. Adenocarcinoma of oesophagusD. SCC of oesophagus

148. Biomarker to rise earliest in MI is:1 Mark

A. TroponinB. CK-MB
C. HomocystineD. Myoglobin

149. Reed Stenberg cells are seen in case of:1 Mark

A. Acute myelocytic leukemiaB. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Non-hodgkin’s lymphomaD. Prostate cancer

150. A patient of 30 years age presented to hospital with complains of easy fatigability, pallor, and weakness. On peripheral smear,there is microcytic hypochromic blood picture. The most possible cause might be:1 Mark

A. Folic acid deficiencyB. Iron deficiency
C. B12 deficiencyD. Renal failure

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