CEE Based Model MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution Part 4


MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution. These test are dedicated to all MDS Entrance Aspirants. Keep on practicing our exam series. Here we have 200 question based on syllabus provided by Medical Education Committee from all subject that are covered in Bachelor of Dental Surgery. Send us feedback via message or mail so that we can improve our exams. Those who want to participate in live test please click her

MDS Entrance Exam Questions

MDS Entrance Exam Questions


Rideal walker test is used to determine the efficiency of:1 Mark

A. DisinfectantB. Dry heat sterilization
C. Moist heat sterilizationD. Cleaning and storage

152. Scrapping of skin in fungal infection is examined by:1 Mark

A. Giensa stainB. Potassium hydroxide
C. Wright stainD. Acid fast stain

153. Whooping cough is caused by:1 Mark

A. Bordetella pertussisB. Haemophilus influenza
C. PneumococcusD. Meningococcus

154. Which of the following is true about window period of HIV:1 Mark

A. PCR is negativeB. ELISA is positive
C. ELISA and western blot are positiveD. Antibody is absent

155. Swine flu is caused by:1 Mark

A. H1N1B. H5N1
C. H3N3D. H1N5

156. Emergency drug used to control tetany is:1 Mark

A. IV diazepamB. IV vit-D
C. IV calcium gluconateD. IV calcitonin

157. Anti-tubercular drug that can be used in case of deranged liver function is:1 Mark

A. IsoniazidB. Rifampicin
C. PyrazinamideD. Streptomycin

158. Which of the following is a cox-2 inhibitor:1 Mark

A. AspirinB. Paracetamol
C. EtoricoxibD. Pantoprazole

159. Which of the following drug is not used in management of neuropathic pain:1 Mark

A. LamotrigineB. Amitriptyline
C. PregabalinD. Gabapentin

160. Colchicine is mainly used for treatement of:1 Mark

A. Diabetic nephropathyB. Gout
C. ArthritisD. Migraine

161. Maximum amount of phosphate is seen in1 Mark

A. BoneB. Enamel
C. GingivaD. Dentin

162. Compared to the inter tubular dentin, peri-tubular dentin is characterized by which of the following?1 Mark

A. Greater stainabilityB. Lesser content of inorganic salts
C. Greater content of inorganic saltsD. Greater content of large collagen fibers.


The plexus of Rashkov is present in which of the following zones in pulp?1 Mark

A. Cell free zoneB. Cell rich zone
C. Odontoblastic zoneD. Pulp core

164. Inorganic content of cementum is1 Mark

A. 45 to 50%B. 50 to 55%
C. 55 to 60%D. 60 to 65%

165. The main function of the horizontal fibres of P.D ligament is1 Mark

A. Prevent extrusionB. Prevent rotation
C. Maintains the mesiodistal widthD. All of the above


Stiffness refers to1 Mark

A. Resistance to elastic deformation.B. Degree of elastic deformation.
C. Expandability on heating.D. Shrinkage on cooling
E. Expansion on cooling.

167. Setting expansion of casting investment is approximately:1 Mark

A. 0.1-0.2%.B. 0.1-0.5%
C. 0.8-1%D. 1.1-1.7%
E. 1.7%-2%

168. Which of the following statements relates best regarding cavity varnish?
1 Mark

A. Varnishes are synthetic resins dissolved in acetone .B. Varnishes are calcium hydroxide in a resin base.
C. Varnishes are used to insulate the pulp thermallyD. Varnishes are used beneath restorative resins to insulate the pulp against chemical irritants.
E. Varnishes are base of ZnO engenol.


Which of the following impression materials can be electroplated without risk of distortion?1 Mark

A. PolysulphidesB. Condensation silicone
C. Addition silicone.D. Hydrocolloid impressions
E. Polyether.

170. Which one of the following is the safest and most reliable method of regulating setting time of gypsum products?1 Mark

A. Altering the water and powder ratio.B. Controlling the temperature of water to be used for mixing.
C. Speed of hand spatulation.D. Length of hand spatulation
E. Adding salt in mixing


Rash of measles occurs on:1 Mark

A. first dayB. 2nd day
C. 3rd dayD. 4th day

172.  A young lady presents with severe sore throat , fever and malaise.she has cervical lymphadenopathy , splenomegaly and scattered petechie on the soft palate with enlarged tonsil covered with white exudates.which of the following investigation is most likely to help guide  your management;1 Mark

A. FNAC of lymph nodeB. hepatitis B surface antigen
C. heterophile antibody testD. HIV test

173. First sensation lost  to be lost in leprosy:1 Mark

A. painB. touch
C. pressureD. temperature

174. Drug not used in H.pylori?1 Mark

A. metronidazoleB. omeprazole
C. mosaprideD. amoxicillin


A toxin of clostridium tetanus,tetanospasmin causes muscular rigidity by blocking1 Mark

A. GABAB. dopamine
C. serotoninD. glutamine

176. Which of the following statement about a bcc of skin is true1 Mark

A. it is also called marjolins ulcerB. it metastases to the regional lymph nodes
C. it’s radiosensitiveD. none of above is true

177. bedsore is an example of:1 Mark

A. tropical ulcerB. trophic ulcer
C. venous ulcerD. post thrombotic ulcer

178. Dermoid cyst is  a form of1 Mark

A. cystic haemartomaB. cystic teratoma
C. choriostomaD. hemartoma

179. According to Veaus classification of cleft lip and palate isolated cleft palate fallsunder:1 Mark

A. Group 1B. group 2
C. group 3D. group 4


Pierre Robbin syndrome is;1 Mark

A. Cleft palate with syndactylB. Cleft palate with mandibular hypoplasia and respiratory obstruction
C. Cleft lip with mandibular hypoplasiaD. Cleft lip

181. Which of 2 nerves blocked when injection is given in pterygomandibular space?1 Mark

A. Buccal & lingual nerveB. Buccal & inferior alveolar nerve
C. Lingual & inferior alveolar nerveD. Buccal nerve & infra orbital nerve


Needle used for infilteration is:1 Mark

A. 25 gaugeB. 30 gauge
C. 27 gaugeD. 16 gauge


Local anesthetic solution withhighest tissue irritancy is:
1 Mark

A. MepivacaineB. Procaine
C. LignocaineD. Bupivacaine

184. Which combination forms day care anesthesia1 Mark

A. Fentanyl, propofol, IsofluraneB. Pethidine, Propofol, Isoflurane
C. Thiopental pethidime, HalothaneD. Thiopentane, isoflurane fantanyl

185. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by1 Mark

A. Depolarising the nerve membrane reducing threshold potentialB. Decreasing the membrane permeability to Na+ ions there by stabilizing nerve membrane
C. Increasing the membrane permeability to K+ ions and by depolarising nerve membraneD. None of the above

186. The principles of medical ethics are all, except 1 Mark

A. Non-MaleficenceB. Confidentiality
C. AutonomyD. Justice

187. According to the ethical principles, the benefits we are obliged to provide as healthcare professionals are specified in part by 1 Mark

A. Our upbringing and personal valuesB. Our relationship, role, and agreements
C. Our employer, the law, our conscienceD. Our contract with the hospital or clinic


Primum Non Nocere means 1 Mark

A. First, do no harmB. First, do not listen
C. Never be the firstD. The higher, the fewer


The concept of justice in ethics is 1 Mark

A. an obligation of the patient to the societyB. that the health resources must be distributed according to the principals of equity
C. taken as patients right to choose or refuse treatmentD. For all medical Professionals to do good for all patients under circumstances

190. The four medical ethics principles which shared between Values Based Medicine and the principles of ethics, explained by Beauchamp and Childress are1 Mark

A. Autonomy, privacy, respect, and confidentialityB. Veracity, privacy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy, nonmaleficence, beneficence, and justiceD. Veracity, privacy, confidentiality, and fidelity

191. Sterilization of liquid paraffin is done by1 Mark

A. AutoclaveB. Hot air oven
C. UV radiationD. Inspissation


Ridealwalker test is used to determine the efficiency of1 Mark

A. DisinfectantB. Dry heat sterilization
C. Moist heat sterilizationD. Cleaning and storage

193. BLS considers infant to be of following age1 Mark

A. 2 yearB. Under 1 year
C. 3 yearD. 4 year


Check for danger, ____________, and send for help are the first three steps you should take when alone to stabilize a person who appears to be having a cardiac or respiratory arrest.1 Mark

A. Establish IV accessB. Check for response
C. Insert an advanced airwayD. Start CPR

195. Which step is NOT a part of the five steps in the Adult Chain of Survival1 Mark

A. Early CPRB. Use of cardiovascular medications
C. Rapid defibrillationD. Integrated post cardiac patient care


A physician caninvestigate blood of this patient for HIV1 Mark

A. as routine investigation on suspicion by the physicianB. on request of patients relative
C. on informed consent from the patientD. without consent form any one


The first external sign of putrefaction is1 Mark

A. Greenish discolouration of the right iliac fossaB. Distension of the lower abdomen
C. Peeling of cuticleD. Fixation of postmortem staining

198. Contributory negligence is a valid defence to the doctor in1 Mark

A. Civil NegligenceB. Criminal negligence
C. Both civil and criminal negligenceD. Ethical Misconduct

199. Teeth bite mark is an example of1 Mark

A. Scratch abrasionB. Graze abrasion
C. Pressure abrasionD. Impact abrasion

200. Undertakers fractures” is commonly seen in 1 Mark

A. skullB. cervical spine
C. lumber spineD. pelvis


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