CEE Based Model MDS Entrance Exam Questions with Solutuion Part 1

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MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution. These test are dedicated to all MDS Entrance Aspirants. Keep on practicing our exam series. Here we have 200 question based on syllabus provided by Medical Education Committee from all subject that are covered in Bachelor of Dental Surgery. Send us feedback via message or mail so that we can improve our exams. Those who want to participate in live test please click her

MDS-Entrance-Exam-Questions
MDS Entrance Exam Questions

MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution

1.  For better osseo integration modifications on implant surfaces include –1 Mark

A. Sandbasting with Aluminum oxideB. Etching with Phosphoric acid
C. Plasma sprayed TitamumD. All of the above

2.

Most plausible factor for dental implant fracture1 Mark

A. Peri-implantitisB. Bending overloads
C. Non-passive fit prosthesisD. Manufacturing imperfections

3.

Remaining bone associated with implant papillary level of single tooth implant is denoted by?1 Mark

A. Bone level surrounding adjacent natural bone height.B. 5 mm of implant abutment junction
C. 5 mm of implant bone levelD. According to bone height of implant

4.  Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingiva results in?1 Mark

A. A shallow sulcusB. Gingival pocket formation
C. Infrabony pocket formationD. Peridontal pocket formation

5.

Which of the following cytokines cause bone resorption?1 Mark

A. IL-1B. IL-8
C. IFN-gammaD. IL-4

6.Ulceration of the palate ina poorly controlled diabetic patient on biopsy shows PAS +ve organism invadingarteries and causing thrombosis. The likely diagnosis is:1 Mark

A. SyphilisB. Midline lethal granuloma
C. CandidiasisD. Mucormycosis

7.Intranuclear inclusiondetected during course of herpes simplex virus infections are called:1 Mark

A. Anitschkow cellsB. Lipschutz bodies
C. Negri bodiesD. Donovan bodies

8. Kissing disease is alsoknown as:1 Mark

A. Scarlet feverB. Palatal lesion of median rhomboid glossitis
C. RubellaD. Glandular fever

9.

The histopathology ofosteopetrosis shows:1 Mark

A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorptionB. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
C. Endosteal bone formation with normal bone resorptionD. Periosteal bone formation with normal bone resorption

10. Microorganism involved in cellulitis is:1 Mark

A. PneumococciB. Streptococcus mutans
C. KlebsiellaD. Streptococcus pyogens

11.

The correct sequence ofmicroscopic zones of dentinal caries beginning from dentino-enamel junction is:1 Mark

A. Zone of sclerosis, decalcification zone, bacterial invasionB. Bacterial invasion, decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis
C. Zone of sclerosis, bacterial invasion, decalcification zoneD. Decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis, bacterial invasion

12.

Radiographic appearance ofpindborg’s tumor is:1 Mark

A. Sun burst appearanceB. Onion peel appearance
C. Driven snow appearanceD. Cherry blossom appearance

13.

Histochemical demonstrationof glycogen in cells help in the diagnosis of:1 Mark

A. Malignant melanomaB. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinomaD. Ewing’s sarcoma

14.

Which of the following amongthem is most likely to turn malignant:1 Mark

A. Intradermal nevusB. Junctional nevus
C. Lichen planusD. Papilloma

15. Thistle tube appearance of pulp chamber is feature of:1 Mark

A. Radicular dentin dysplasiaB. Coronal dentin dysplasia
C. Regional odontodysplasiaD. Fibrous dysplasia

16.

Bifid ribs and multipleodontogenic keratocysts in radiographs are the features of:1 Mark

A. Gardener’s syndromeB. Goltz gorlin syndrome
C. Maffucci syndromeD. Gorlin goltz syndrome

17.

Angular or tennis racketappearance is the radiographic features of:1 Mark

A. AdamantinomaB. Odontogenic myxoma
C. Odontogenic sarcomaD. Pindborg’s tumor

18. Salt pepper appearance in radiograph is seen in:1 Mark

A. OsteoporosisB. Osteopetrosis
C. Sickle cell anemiaD. Thalassemia

19.

Subcondylar fracture ofmandible is best seen in:1 Mark

A. Towne’s viewB. Reverse towne’s view
C. Lateral oblique ramusD. AP mandible

20. The image is best obtained while duplicating films, if exposed to:1 Mark

A. X raysB. UV rays
C. Visible lightD. Infrared light

21. Chronic granulocytic leukemia is due to:1 Mark

A. Chromosomal deletionB. Chromosomal mutation
C. Chromosomal translocationD. Chromosomal transmigration

22.

The most common intraorallocation for pigmented nevi is:1 Mark

A. Hard palateB. Buccal mucosa
C. Soft palateD. Labial mucosa

23.

Osteomalacia is:1 Mark

A. Defective osteoid and normal mineralizationB. Normal osteoid and defective mineralization
C. Abnormal osteoid and abnormal mineralizationD. Normal osteoid and demineralization

24.

A deficiency of which of thefollowing cells predispose to candidiasis:1 Mark

A. EosinophillsB. Macrophages
C. Plasma cellsD. T lymphocytes

25.

Cytological smear showingmultinucleated giant cells, syncytium and ballooning degeneration of thenucleus is characteristic of:1 Mark

A. Herpes simplex infectionB. Erythema multiforme
C. PemphigusD. Coxsackie virus infection

26.

Primary antibody deficienciesare caused by:1 Mark

A. Recurrent allergic reactionsB. Recurrent bacterial infections
C. Implicit allergic reactionsD. Implicit bacterial infections

27.

Desmoplakin is targetantigen in:1 Mark

A. Pemphigus vulgarisB. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
C. Drug induced pemphigusD. Pemphigus foliaceous

28.

Reduction in flow of salivais generally not seen in:1 Mark

A. DiabeticsB. Patient under radiotherapy
C. Patients on phenothiazinesD. Patient suffering from parkinsonism

29.

Break up time test is donefor:1 Mark

A. Sjogren’s syndromeB. Scleroderma
C. Myasthenia gravisD. Guillian barre syndrome

30. Brachytherapy in radiation oncology means:1 Mark

A. Irradiation of tissue from distanceB. Irradiation of tissue by radiopharmaceuticals
C. Irradiation of tissues using implants within tissuesD. Irradiation of tissue from distance of 5cm.

31.

The type of laser used inpulpotomy procedure is:1 Mark

A. Nd : YAG laserB. Argon laser
C. Carbo dioxide laserD. Er: YAG laser

32.

Stripe crowns are indicated inpediatric patients with 1 Mark

A. Extensive caries in posterior teethB. Ellis class I fracture
C. Grossly destructed anterior teethD. Extensive caries in anterior teeth

33. The dimensions of rubber dam forchildren1 Mark

A. 5*5”B. 6*6”
C. 7*7”D. 8*8”

34.

The dimensions of rubber dam forchildren1 Mark

A. 5*5”B. 6*6”
C. 7*7”D. 8*8”

35.

A child is brought to the clinicwith chief complaint of irregular teeth. The maxillary central incisors isrotated in an otherwise normal occlusion. What should the next step be?1 Mark

A. Check for supernumerary teethB. Fixed orthodontic appliances
C. Broadbent phenomenonD. Extract a couple of teeth

36.

Midline diastema present in children is self-correcting if diastema is not more then?1 Mark

A. 2.0 mmB. 1.8 mm
C. 2.5mmD. 1 mm

37.

Porter’s arch is recommended as areminder appliance in children with?1 Mark

A. Lip biting habitsB. Thumb sucking habits
C. Mouth breathingD. Tongue thrusting

38.

In an eight year old child, firstmolar is extracted due to caries. What would be your treatment of choice?1 Mark

A. RPDB. Surgical repositioning of second molar
C. Wait for second molar to drift mesially on its ownD. Space maintainer

39.

A child suffers from trauma whichcauses lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. The incisor is not inocclusion and does not cause interference. What should be done?1 Mark

A. Immediate response and splintingB. The incisor should be allowed for passive and spontaneous response itself
C. Reduce the opposite toothD. Reduce both the affected and the opposite tooth

40.

A man calls you in your dentaloffice saying that his child fell down ½ an hour before while playing with hisfriends and has an avulsed tooth. What would you suggest him to do?1 Mark

A. put the tooth in cold milk and take it to the dentistB. wrap the tooth in a wet handkerchief and take it to the dentist
C. put the tooth in water and take to the dentistD. discard the tooth and go to the dentist

41.

A 7.5 years old child, reports inyour clinic with a fracture of central incisor with and apex open, there islarge pulpal exposure. What would be you treatment of choice?1 Mark

A. Pulpotomy and calcium hydroxide dressingB. Pulpectomy and calcium hydroxide dressing
C. Smooth the edges and protect the exposed portion with ZOE dressingD. Direct pulp capping calcium hydroxide dressing

42. “Tell-show-Do”technique of child management was introduced by1 Mark

A. BanduraB. Jordan
C. AddleslonD. Arthur Nowak

43.

Which of the following materialsis the most ideal for indirect pulp capping?1 Mark

A. Zinc oxide eugenol cementB. Calcium hydroxide
C. VitapexD. GIC

44.

At which stage congenital defectsare more pronounced, especially when certain teratogenic agents interfereduring the development of embryo?1 Mark

A. 4-8 weeksB. 5-6 months of intrauterine life
C. Initial stage before 4 weeksD. All the above said phases

45.

A 12 year child reports to the dental clinic with physiologic mobility with respect to 54. Extraction under local anesthesia is planned. The most common complication after local anesthesia that may been countered is:1 Mark

A. Needle breaking and edemaB. Trismus and Hematoma
C. Paresthesia and facial nerve paralysisD. Anesthetic toxicity and trauma to the soft tissue

46.

Which of the following indicate extraction of upper first molars1 Mark

A. When they are rotatedB. When prognosis is poor
C. For mesial movement of second molarsD. When they are rotated

47.

Laser welding:1 Mark

A. Involves high heat generationB. Can be done with pure titanium
C. Is not used in dentistryD. Can be done with pure gold

48.

Molar-incisor hypoplasia in primary teeth at the occlusal level is due to developmental defect occurring during?1 Mark

A. Birth to 12 monthsB. 4th month intra-uterine to birth
C. 22 months to 26 monthsD. 24 months to 48 months

49.

A patient has a functional shift towards right due to cross bite, the indicated treatment is1 Mark

A. Maxillary expansion bilaterallyB. Expansion of maxilla on the side of functional shift
C. Expansion of maxilla opposite to the side of functional shiftD. None of the above

50. Bone can be induced to grow at surgically created sites by the method called1 Mark

A. OsteogenesisB. Distraction osteogenesis
C. Bone waxD. Green stick fracture

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