MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution. These test are dedicated to all MDS Entrance Aspirants. Keep on practicing our exam series. Here we have 200 question based on syllabus provided by Medical Education Committee from all subject that are covered in Bachelor of Dental Surgery. Send us feedback via message or mail so that we can improve our exams. Those who want to participate in live test please click her

MDS Entrance Exam Questions with solution
1. For better osseo integration modifications on implant surfaces include –1 Mark
A. Sandbasting with Aluminum oxide | B. Etching with Phosphoric acid |
C. Plasma sprayed Titamum | D. All of the above |
2.
Most plausible factor for dental implant fracture1 Mark
A. Peri-implantitis | B. Bending overloads |
C. Non-passive fit prosthesis | D. Manufacturing imperfections |
3.
Remaining bone associated with implant papillary level of single tooth implant is denoted by?1 Mark
A. Bone level surrounding adjacent natural bone height. | B. 5 mm of implant abutment junction |
C. 5 mm of implant bone level | D. According to bone height of implant |
4. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingiva results in?1 Mark
A. A shallow sulcus | B. Gingival pocket formation |
C. Infrabony pocket formation | D. Peridontal pocket formation |
5.
Which of the following cytokines cause bone resorption?1 Mark
A. IL-1 | B. IL-8 |
C. IFN-gamma | D. IL-4 |
6.Ulceration of the palate ina poorly controlled diabetic patient on biopsy shows PAS +ve organism invadingarteries and causing thrombosis. The likely diagnosis is:1 Mark
A. Syphilis | B. Midline lethal granuloma |
C. Candidiasis | D. Mucormycosis |
7.Intranuclear inclusiondetected during course of herpes simplex virus infections are called:1 Mark
A. Anitschkow cells | B. Lipschutz bodies |
C. Negri bodies | D. Donovan bodies |
8. Kissing disease is alsoknown as:1 Mark
A. Scarlet fever | B. Palatal lesion of median rhomboid glossitis |
C. Rubella | D. Glandular fever |
9.
The histopathology ofosteopetrosis shows:1 Mark
A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption | B. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption |
C. Endosteal bone formation with normal bone resorption | D. Periosteal bone formation with normal bone resorption |
10. Microorganism involved in cellulitis is:1 Mark
A. Pneumococci | B. Streptococcus mutans |
C. Klebsiella | D. Streptococcus pyogens |
11.
The correct sequence ofmicroscopic zones of dentinal caries beginning from dentino-enamel junction is:1 Mark
A. Zone of sclerosis, decalcification zone, bacterial invasion | B. Bacterial invasion, decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis |
C. Zone of sclerosis, bacterial invasion, decalcification zone | D. Decalcification zone, zone of sclerosis, bacterial invasion |
12.
Radiographic appearance ofpindborg’s tumor is:1 Mark
A. Sun burst appearance | B. Onion peel appearance |
C. Driven snow appearance | D. Cherry blossom appearance |
13.
Histochemical demonstrationof glycogen in cells help in the diagnosis of:1 Mark
A. Malignant melanoma | B. Kaposi’s sarcoma |
C. Squamous cell carcinoma | D. Ewing’s sarcoma |
14.
Which of the following amongthem is most likely to turn malignant:1 Mark
A. Intradermal nevus | B. Junctional nevus |
C. Lichen planus | D. Papilloma |
15. Thistle tube appearance of pulp chamber is feature of:1 Mark
A. Radicular dentin dysplasia | B. Coronal dentin dysplasia |
C. Regional odontodysplasia | D. Fibrous dysplasia |
16.
Bifid ribs and multipleodontogenic keratocysts in radiographs are the features of:1 Mark
A. Gardener’s syndrome | B. Goltz gorlin syndrome |
C. Maffucci syndrome | D. Gorlin goltz syndrome |
17.
Angular or tennis racketappearance is the radiographic features of:1 Mark
A. Adamantinoma | B. Odontogenic myxoma |
C. Odontogenic sarcoma | D. Pindborg’s tumor |
18. Salt pepper appearance in radiograph is seen in:1 Mark
A. Osteoporosis | B. Osteopetrosis |
C. Sickle cell anemia | D. Thalassemia |
19.
Subcondylar fracture ofmandible is best seen in:1 Mark
A. Towne’s view | B. Reverse towne’s view |
C. Lateral oblique ramus | D. AP mandible |
20. The image is best obtained while duplicating films, if exposed to:1 Mark
A. X rays | B. UV rays |
C. Visible light | D. Infrared light |
21. Chronic granulocytic leukemia is due to:1 Mark
A. Chromosomal deletion | B. Chromosomal mutation |
C. Chromosomal translocation | D. Chromosomal transmigration |
22.
The most common intraorallocation for pigmented nevi is:1 Mark
A. Hard palate | B. Buccal mucosa |
C. Soft palate | D. Labial mucosa |
23.
Osteomalacia is:1 Mark
A. Defective osteoid and normal mineralization | B. Normal osteoid and defective mineralization |
C. Abnormal osteoid and abnormal mineralization | D. Normal osteoid and demineralization |
24.
A deficiency of which of thefollowing cells predispose to candidiasis:1 Mark
A. Eosinophills | B. Macrophages |
C. Plasma cells | D. T lymphocytes |
25.
Cytological smear showingmultinucleated giant cells, syncytium and ballooning degeneration of thenucleus is characteristic of:1 Mark
A. Herpes simplex infection | B. Erythema multiforme |
C. Pemphigus | D. Coxsackie virus infection |
26.
Primary antibody deficienciesare caused by:1 Mark
A. Recurrent allergic reactions | B. Recurrent bacterial infections |
C. Implicit allergic reactions | D. Implicit bacterial infections |
27.
Desmoplakin is targetantigen in:1 Mark
A. Pemphigus vulgaris | B. Paraneoplastic pemphigus |
C. Drug induced pemphigus | D. Pemphigus foliaceous |
28.
Reduction in flow of salivais generally not seen in:1 Mark
A. Diabetics | B. Patient under radiotherapy |
C. Patients on phenothiazines | D. Patient suffering from parkinsonism |
29.
Break up time test is donefor:1 Mark
A. Sjogren’s syndrome | B. Scleroderma |
C. Myasthenia gravis | D. Guillian barre syndrome |
30. Brachytherapy in radiation oncology means:1 Mark
A. Irradiation of tissue from distance | B. Irradiation of tissue by radiopharmaceuticals |
C. Irradiation of tissues using implants within tissues | D. Irradiation of tissue from distance of 5cm. |
31.
The type of laser used inpulpotomy procedure is:1 Mark
A. Nd : YAG laser | B. Argon laser |
C. Carbo dioxide laser | D. Er: YAG laser |
32.
Stripe crowns are indicated inpediatric patients with 1 Mark
A. Extensive caries in posterior teeth | B. Ellis class I fracture |
C. Grossly destructed anterior teeth | D. Extensive caries in anterior teeth |
33. The dimensions of rubber dam forchildren1 Mark
A. 5*5” | B. 6*6” |
C. 7*7” | D. 8*8” |
34.
The dimensions of rubber dam forchildren1 Mark
A. 5*5” | B. 6*6” |
C. 7*7” | D. 8*8” |
35.
A child is brought to the clinicwith chief complaint of irregular teeth. The maxillary central incisors isrotated in an otherwise normal occlusion. What should the next step be?1 Mark
A. Check for supernumerary teeth | B. Fixed orthodontic appliances |
C. Broadbent phenomenon | D. Extract a couple of teeth |
36.
Midline diastema present in children is self-correcting if diastema is not more then?1 Mark
A. 2.0 mm | B. 1.8 mm |
C. 2.5mm | D. 1 mm |
37.
Porter’s arch is recommended as areminder appliance in children with?1 Mark
A. Lip biting habits | B. Thumb sucking habits |
C. Mouth breathing | D. Tongue thrusting |
38.
In an eight year old child, firstmolar is extracted due to caries. What would be your treatment of choice?1 Mark
A. RPD | B. Surgical repositioning of second molar |
C. Wait for second molar to drift mesially on its own | D. Space maintainer |
39.
A child suffers from trauma whichcauses lateral luxation of the primary central incisor. The incisor is not inocclusion and does not cause interference. What should be done?1 Mark
A. Immediate response and splinting | B. The incisor should be allowed for passive and spontaneous response itself |
C. Reduce the opposite tooth | D. Reduce both the affected and the opposite tooth |
40.
A man calls you in your dentaloffice saying that his child fell down ½ an hour before while playing with hisfriends and has an avulsed tooth. What would you suggest him to do?1 Mark
A. put the tooth in cold milk and take it to the dentist | B. wrap the tooth in a wet handkerchief and take it to the dentist |
C. put the tooth in water and take to the dentist | D. discard the tooth and go to the dentist |
41.
A 7.5 years old child, reports inyour clinic with a fracture of central incisor with and apex open, there islarge pulpal exposure. What would be you treatment of choice?1 Mark
A. Pulpotomy and calcium hydroxide dressing | B. Pulpectomy and calcium hydroxide dressing |
C. Smooth the edges and protect the exposed portion with ZOE dressing | D. Direct pulp capping calcium hydroxide dressing |
42. “Tell-show-Do”technique of child management was introduced by1 Mark
A. Bandura | B. Jordan |
C. Addleslon | D. Arthur Nowak |
43.
Which of the following materialsis the most ideal for indirect pulp capping?1 Mark
A. Zinc oxide eugenol cement | B. Calcium hydroxide |
C. Vitapex | D. GIC |
44.
At which stage congenital defectsare more pronounced, especially when certain teratogenic agents interfereduring the development of embryo?1 Mark
A. 4-8 weeks | B. 5-6 months of intrauterine life |
C. Initial stage before 4 weeks | D. All the above said phases |
45.
A 12 year child reports to the dental clinic with physiologic mobility with respect to 54. Extraction under local anesthesia is planned. The most common complication after local anesthesia that may been countered is:1 Mark
A. Needle breaking and edema | B. Trismus and Hematoma |
C. Paresthesia and facial nerve paralysis | D. Anesthetic toxicity and trauma to the soft tissue |
46.
Which of the following indicate extraction of upper first molars1 Mark
A. When they are rotated | B. When prognosis is poor |
C. For mesial movement of second molars | D. When they are rotated |
47.
Laser welding:1 Mark
A. Involves high heat generation | B. Can be done with pure titanium |
C. Is not used in dentistry | D. Can be done with pure gold |
48.
Molar-incisor hypoplasia in primary teeth at the occlusal level is due to developmental defect occurring during?1 Mark
A. Birth to 12 months | B. 4th month intra-uterine to birth |
C. 22 months to 26 months | D. 24 months to 48 months |
49.
A patient has a functional shift towards right due to cross bite, the indicated treatment is1 Mark
A. Maxillary expansion bilaterally | B. Expansion of maxilla on the side of functional shift |
C. Expansion of maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift | D. None of the above |
50. Bone can be induced to grow at surgically created sites by the method called1 Mark
A. Osteogenesis | B. Distraction osteogenesis |
C. Bone wax | D. Green stick fracture |