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NMCLE Questions Model Test
Marks : 180
1.
Gastric irritation is minimal with one of thefollowing non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs1 Mark
| A. Piroxicam | B. Tenoxicam |
| C. Menoxicam | D. Indomithacin |
2.
Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of1 Mark
| A. Intrinsic pathway | B. Extrinsic pathway |
| C. Capillary Function | D. All of the above |
3.
Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to1 Mark
| A. PCT | B. DCT |
| C. Afferent arteriole | D. Efferent arterioles |
4.
Universal recipient blood group is1 Mark
| A. O- ve | B. O+ve |
| C. AB-ve | D. AB+ve |
5.
Western Blot is used for1 Mark
| A. DNA | B. Proteins |
| C. mRNA | D. RNA |
6.
Rapid Diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with1 Mark
| A. Ziel-Nelson | B. Kin Young Stain |
| C. Auramine Rhodamine stain | D. Giemsa stain |
7.
Half Life of HIV virus in Plasma is1 Mark
| A. 20 hours | B. 6 hours |
| C. 12 hours | D. 3 months |
8.
Facial muscles are derived from1 Mark
| A. 1st branchial arch | B. 3rd branchial arch |
| C. 2nd branchial arch | D. 4th branchial arch |
9.
TMJ is supplied mainly by:1 Mark
| A. Masseteric and auriculotemporal nerve | B. Superficial temporal nerve |
| C. Facial nerve peripheral branch | D. Posterior auricular nerve |
10.
Temperature of body is controlled by1 Mark
| A. Medulla | B. Diencephalon |
| C. Recentral gyrus | D. Hypothalamus |
11.
Gorgoyle cells are seen in:1 Mark
| A. Gauchers disease | B. Hurler syndrome |
| C. Lipoid proteinosis | D. Hereditary fructose intolerance |
12. A characteristic starry sky appearance seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma is due to:1 Mark
| A. Aggregated macrophages, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris | B. Scattered macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris |
| C. Aggregated macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with cellular debris | D. Scattered macrophages,, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris |
13.
The ‘Abtropfung’ effect is the histological feature of:1 Mark
| A. Common blue nevus | B. Intradermal nevus |
| C. Junctional nevus | D. Compound nevus |
14. ‘Lavaflowing around boulders’ is a typical histological features of:1 Mark
| A. Coronal dentin dysplasia | B. Radicular dentin dysplasia |
| C. Regional odontodysplasia | D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 1 |
15.
The cystic lumen reveals degenerated keratin in onion rings fashion with stratifiedsquamous epithelium lacking rete processes. The most likely histologicaldiagnosis is:1 Mark
| A. Epidermal cyst | B. Keratin cyst |
| C. Klestadt’s cyst | D. Epstein’s pearls |
16. Hemangiopericytoma in histopathological examination shows1 Mark
| A. Staghorn pattern | B. Touton type multinucleated giant cells |
| C. Neural invasion | D. All of the above |
17. There are papillary proliferations of bilayered oncocytic epithelium and lymphoid matrix show germinal centers. Cystic space contain eosinophillic coagulum (appears as chocolate colored fluid in gross specimen). The most likely diagnosis is:1 Mark
| A. Warthin’s tumor | B. Pleomorphic adenoma |
| C. Oncocytoma | D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma |
18.
One of the following is not the potential complications of dentigerous cyst:1 Mark
| A. Ameloblastoma | B. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor |
| C. Epidermoid carcinoma | D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma |
19. A parakeratinized surface which is corrugated with uniform thickness of epithelium (6-10 cells thick) with basal cells showing “Picket fence”appearance is the histological features of:1 Mark
| A. Dentigerous cyst | B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst |
| C. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor | D. Glandular odontogenic cyst |
20.
One of the following odontogenic tumors originates from odontogenic epithelium withodontogenic ectomesenchyme with/without hard tissue formation:1 Mark
| A. Squamous odontogenic tumor | B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor |
| C. Ameloblastoma | D. Odontoameloblastoma |
21.
The sequence of fall of hematopoietic factors during whole body radiation is:1 Mark
| A. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th Erythrocyte | B. 1st Granulocyte, 2nd Lymphocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th Erythrocyte |
| C. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Erythrocyte, 4th Thrombocyte | D. 1st Erythrocyte, 2nd Thrombocyte, 3rd Granulocyte, 4th Lymphocyte |
22. All of the following are angiomatous syndrome except1 Mark
| A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | B. Bannayan-Zonana syndrome |
| C. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome | D. Maffucci’s syndrome |
23.
Breslow’s tumor thickness and Clark’s level of invasion is used to assess prognosis ofone of the following tumors:1 Mark
| A. Ameloblastic carcinoma | B. Melanoacanthoma |
| C. Squamous cell carcinoma | D. Malignant melanoma |
24.
The correct representation of attenuation is:1 Mark
| A. Attenuation = Absorption/scattering | B. Attenuation = Absorption + scattering |
| C. Attenuation = Absorption – scattering | D. Attenuation = Scattering/ absorption |
25.
The traditional unit of equivalent dose is:1 Mark
| A. Roentgen | B. Rad |
| C. Seivert | D. Rem |
26. The complete series of image in CBCT is referred to as:1 Mark
| A. Primary data | B. Projection data |
| C. Basis data | D. Frame data |
27.
One of the following is correct time – temperature parameters followed during film processing:1 Mark
| A. 72 degree F, 3 min | B. 68 degree F, 4.5 min |
| C. 80 degreeF, 2.5 min | D. 70 degree F, 4 min |
28. Patient complains of jaw lock so that mouth would not open all way with limited mouthopening interfering with eating and chewing. Maximum stretch was <40mm> including vertical overlap. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
1 Mark
| A. Disc displacement with reduction | B. Disc displacement with reduction with intermittent locking |
| C. Disc displacement without reduction with limited mouth opening | D. Disc displacement without reduction without limited opening |
29.
The patient wearing complete denture presents with erythematous area over majorpart of denture covered region. This type of denture stomatitis is:1 Mark
| A. Type I | B. Type II |
| C. Type III | D. Type IV |
30. One of the following regarding aphthous ulcers is mismatch:1 Mark
| A. Minor: Most common (80%), <1.0 cm, lasting 7–14 days, no scarring | B. Major: >1.0 cm, lasting weeks, often with scarring |
| C. Herpetiform: <1.0 cm, >10 ulcers, dispersed widely over mucosa | D. Severe: Same as major, but ulcers present continuously |
31. Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify1 Mark
| A. True negative | B. False positive |
| C. False negative | D. True positive |
32.
Screening for the oral cancer comes under whichlevel of prevention1 Mark
| A. Primary level | B. Tertiary level |
| C. Secondary level | D. None of the above |
33. ALL of the following measure the plaque index except:1 Mark
| A. Ramjford index | B. Moller’s index |
| C. OHI-S index | D. Loe and Silness |
34. Fluoride supplementfor a 3-year old child living in an area with fluoride content of 0.25 ppm is1 Mark
| A. 0.25 mg | B. 0.5 mg |
| C. 0.75 mg | D. 1 mg |
35.
Brudevold’s solution contains:1 Mark
| A. 2 % SnF2 | B. 2 % NaF2 |
| C. 1.23 percent sodium fluoride in 0.1 M orthophosphoric acid | D. 2 percent sodium fluoride in 0.1 M orthophosphoric acid |
36.
The use of pit and fissure sealant iscontraindicated in1 Mark
| A. Arrested caries | B. Recalcitrant caries |
| C. Remedial caries | D. Rampant caries |
37.
Best caries activity test used for field study is1 Mark
| A. Lactobacillus count test | B. Streptococcus mutans |
| C. Snyder’s test | D. Saliva / tongue blade method |
38.
The point at which the chlorine demand of wateris met is termed1 Mark
| A. Break point | B. Loss of head |
| C. Back wash | D. Chlorine demand |
39.
The W.H.O. periodontal probe (CPITN probe) has acolor coded black1 Mark
| A. 0 to 0.5 mm | B. 3 to 3.5 mm |
| C. 8.5 to 11.5 mm | D. 3 to 5 mm |
40.
What kind of sampling should be done when there is a small group of patients, easily available?1 Mark
| A. Random sampling | B. Multiphase sampling |
| C. Multistage sampling | D. None of the above |
41. Apicoectomy is contraindicated in1 Mark
| A. Is not contraindicated | B. Over filled root canals |
| C. Lateral perforation at apical third | D. Extensive bone loss |
42. Which of the following needle is used for irrigation?1 Mark
| A. 23 | B. 25 |
| C. 27 | D. 29 |
43. Cholesterol crystals are occasionally present in which of the following Zone?1 Mark
| A. Zone of contamination | B. Zone of irritation |
| C. Zone of necrosis | D. Zone of stimulation |
44. The enamel bevel of a gingival floor is done with:1 Mark
| A. Hatchet | B. Curette |
| C. Hoe | D. Chisel |
45. Reverase bevel is given for1 Mark
| A. Convenience form | B. Resistance from |
| C. Lap sliding fit | D. To remove the undermined enamel |
46. Polishing agent for amalgam1 Mark
| A. Tin oxide | B. Iron oxide |
| C. Alumina | D. Silica |
47. 2nd generation apex locators are based on1 Mark
| A. Impedance | B. Frequency |
| C. Resistance | D. Capacitance |
48. The ideal method for restoring a fractured tooth is1 Mark
| A. Open faced stainless steel crown | B. Composite resin restoration |
| C. Reattachment of fractured tooth segment | D. Strip crown |
49. Stabilisation of avulsed tooth requires1 Mark
| A. 1-2 Weeks | B. More than 6 Weeks |
| C. 2-3 Weeks | D. 4-6 Weeks |
50. Most common cause of RCT failure1 Mark
| A. Incomplete removal of PA cyst | B. Incomplete debridement with improper obturation |
| C. Non-obturation of accessory canals | D. Large size of PA pathology |
51. G.P. is softened by1 Mark
| A. Alcohol | B. Chloroform |
| C. Eugenol | D. EDTA |
52. The number 12 in a 3 unit formula 12-6-8 indicates the blade is1 Mark
| A. 12 mm in length | B. 1.2 mm in length |
| C. 12 mm in width | D. 1.2 mm in width |
53. Best marginal integrity is obtained with1 Mark
| A. GIC | B. Gold foil |
| C. Amalgam | D. Gold Inlay |
54. The chemical used to etch enamel is1 Mark
| A. Zinc oxide | B. Methyl methacrylate |
| C. Phosphoric acid | D. Eugenol |
55. Cavity varnish is used for 1 Mark
| A. To reduce thermal conductivity | B. To reduce the permeability of acid into dentinal tubules |
| C. Action as an obtundant | D. All of the above |
56.
‘Saucering” out of smallpits to improve self cleansing property is called1 Mark
| A. Enameloplast | B. Saucerisation |
| C. Odontotomy | D. None of the above |
57.
The ISO 50 No.file with 4% taper at 10mm away from the tip has the diameter of :1 Mark
| A. 0.80 mm | B. 0.85 mm |
| C. 0.90 mm | D. 0.95 mm |
58.
The modern instrument capable ofdetecting temperature change as small as 0.1degree celsius which is used for measuring pulp vitality experimentally is:1 Mark
| A. Hughes Probeye camera | B. Dual wavelength spectrophotometry |
| C. Photoplethysmography | D. Digital thermometer |
59.
The test that measures symmetry of bur-head in a dynamic condition which determines the minimum diameter of drill hole that can be prepared by that given bur is :1 Mark
| A. Concentricity | B. Runout |
| C. Clearance | D. Flutes |
60.
Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is in1 Mark
| A. Cavosurface margin | B. Contact area |
| C. Isthmus area | D. Proximal box |
61. Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory before extraction in1 Mark
| A. Ischemic heart disease | B. Congestive heart failure |
| C. Hypertension | D. Congenital heart disease |
62. Tracheostomy is usually done between1 Mark
| A. 1st and 2nd tracheal ring | B. 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring |
| C. 3rd and 4th tracheal ring | D. 4th and 5th tracheal ring |
63. Which of the following component is absent in single-use dental cartridges of local anesthetic?1 Mark
| A. Methylparaben | B. Water |
| C. Sodium metabisulfite | D. Sodium chloride |
64. Dautrey procedure is treatment modality for?1 Mark
| A. TMJ Clicking | B. TMJ dislocation |
| C. TMJ subluxation | D. TMJ ankyloses |
65. Most common medical emergency in dental office?1 Mark
| A. Mild allergic reactions | B. Syncope |
| C. Postural hypotension | D. Epinephrine reaction |
66. Local anesthetic with high lipid solubility has1 Mark
| A. Rapid onset of action | B. Increased potency |
| C. Longer duration of action | D. Greater vaso-dilator activity |
67.
Colour coding of 27-gauge needle is1 Mark
| A. Blue | B. Yellow |
| C. Red | D. Green |
68. The volume of 2% lidocaine containing 1:80000 epinephrine which can be safely given to a cardiac patient is1 Mark
| A. 3 ml | B. 5 ml |
| C. 7 ml | D. 8 ml |
69. In an inferior alveolar nerve block, which of the following sensation is recovered first and in which tooth?1 Mark
| A. Pain in central incisor | B. Pain in third molar |
| C. Pressure in central incisor | D. Pressure in third molar |
70. Most paresthesias occurring as a complication local anesthetic resolve without treatment within approximately1 Mark
| A. 2 weeks | B. 6 weeks |
| C. 4 weeks | D. 8 weeks |
71. “Dumb-bell” shaped swelling is seen in1 Mark
| A. Buccal space infection | B. Submandibular space infection |
| C. Pterygomandibular space infection | D. Temporal space infection |
72. Among the following suture materials, which one elicits more tissue reaction1 Mark
| A. Catgut | B. Silk |
| C. Nylon | D. Prolene |
73. Eminectomy is done for the treatment of1 Mark
| A. TMJ ankylosis | B. TMJ dislocation |
| C. Coronoid fracture | D. All of the above |
74. Treatment of odontogenic keratocyst extending into mandibular ramus is1 Mark
| A. Enucleation without curettage | B. Marsupialization without curettage |
| C. Enucleation with peripheral osteotomy | D. Enbloc dissection |
75. Treatment of choice for traumatic bone cyst is1 Mark
| A. Opening the cavity and inducing bleeding | B. Enucleation of the cyst lining |
| C. Marsupialization of the cyst | D. Packing with BIPP and prevent bleeding and clot formation |
76. After Le Fort I osteotomy blood supply of maxilla is maintained by1 Mark
| A. Greater palatine artery | B. Anterior superior alveolar artery |
| C. Posterior superior alveolar artery | D. Ascending pharyngeal artery |
77. The “Amber line” in Winter’s WAR line represents1 Mark
| A. Amount of alveolar bone covering the impacted tooth | B. Imaginary point of application of elevator |
| C. Difference in occlusal level of 2nd and 3rd molar | D. The angulation of the 3rd molar |
78. Anti-mongoloid slant can be seen in which fracture?1 Mark
| A. Le Fort I fracture | B. Le Fort II fracture |
| C. Le Fort III fracture | D. Naso-Orbito-Ethmoidal fracture |
79. Sawhney Class III of TMJ ankyloses is?1 Mark
| A. Fibrous adhesion | B. Bony fusion of mandibular ramus and zygomatic arch |
| C. Bony fusion of misshaped condylar head and articular surface | D. Entire joint replacement by bony block between ramus and skull base |
80.
During CPR, chest compression should be?1 Mark
| A. 2 inch/second | B. 2 inch/5 seconds |
| C. 1.5 inch/second | D. 1 inch/second |
81. A distal shoe type of space maintainer is indicated in:1 Mark
| A. Loss of primary anterior tooth | B. If the primary 2nd molar is lost before the eruption of permanent 1st molar |
| C. If the primary 2nd molar is lost after the eruption of permanent 1st molar | D. Loss of primary 1st molar |
82. A single force is applied to the crowns of the upper incisors. Tipping is around the point of rotation present at:1 Mark
| A. Infinity | B. Apical l/3rd |
| C. middle l/3rd | D. Coronal l/3rd |
83. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion. The angle ANB is frequently used in patients with severe class II malocclusions. This angle is1 Mark
| A. Large | B. Small |
| C. Normal | D. Negative |
84. Permanent retainer is sometimes needed in cases of:1 Mark
| A. Severe malocclusion | B. Anterior cross bite |
| C. Transposition | D. Severe rotations |
85. Anteroposterior relation of jaws is measured by:1 Mark
| A. ANB angle | B. Angle between SN & FH Plane |
| C. Angle between SN & mandibular plane | D. Facial angle |
86. Which of the following condition is always present in a Class II, Division 2 malocclusion?1 Mark
| A. Closed bite | B. Cross bite |
| C. Deep overbite | D. Open bite |
87. The minimum force required to retard and redirect the maxillary growth1 Mark
| A. 300 – 400 gm/side | B. 500 – 600 gm/side |
| C. 400 – 500 gm/side | D. 450 -550 gm/side |
88. Edge wise bonded brackets are used1 Mark
| A. On incisal edges of anterior teeth | B. To obtain edge to edge occlusion |
| C. With rectangular arch wire | D. With labial arch wires at incisal and gingival edges of each bracket |
89. The average leewayspace available in each half of mandible is1 Mark
| A. 3.8 mm | B. 1.7 mm |
| C. 2.4 mm | D. 0.9 mm |
90. When length of a spring is doubled, the effect is:1 Mark
| A. Doubled | B. Four times |
| C. Six times | D. Eight times |
91. Supernumerary teeth are in all except 1 Mark
| A. Ectodermal dysplasia | B. Cleft palate cases |
| C. Gardner’s syndrome | D. Cleidocranial dysostosis |
92. What unfavourable oral sequel is associated withprolonged use of antibiotics in children?1 Mark
| A. Aphthous ulcers | B. Acute necrotising gingivitis |
| C. Herpes simplex infection | D. Moniliasis |
93. The % formaldehyde in buckely’s formocresol is 1 Mark
| A. 15% | B. 19% |
| C. 25% | D. 20% |
94.
The fastest film available for dental radiography is:1 Mark
| A. A | B. B |
| C. D | D. E |
95.
Waddell triad of injuries involves:1 Mark
| A. Head, neck and shoulders | B. Head, neck and torso |
| C. Head, torso and upper extremity | D. Head, torso and lower extremity |
96.
Give the diagnosis for a neonate withasymptomatic, multiple nodular white lesions along the midpalatine raphe.1 Mark
| A. Epstein pearls | B. Bohn’s nodules |
| C. Dental lamina cysts | D. Primary herpetic lesion |
97. The level of needle while giving inferior alveolar nerve block in children above 6 years of age is:1 Mark
| A. Much below the occlusal level | B. Below the occlusal level |
| C. At the occlusal level | D. Above the occlusal level |
98. Sealants are retained onto the enamel surface mainly by:1 Mark
| A. Direct adhesiveness of the sealant | B. Sealant penetration into the etched enamel |
| C. Mechanical retention into the deep pits and fissures | D. Chemical bonding between the sealant and the enamel |
99.
Which vitamin is used in the prevention ofdental caries?1 Mark
| A. Vitamin A | B. Vitamin D |
| C. Vitamin E | D. Vitamin K |
100. Chronic periapical infection in primary molars is firstnoted as 1 Mark
| A. Rarefaction of bony furcation | B. As internal resorption |
| C. As rarefaction of Periapical tissues | D. Widening of Periodontal ligament space |
101.
Life-saver shaped enlargements of the marginal gingival are called1 Mark
| A. Gingival crater | B. McCall festoons |
| C. Window peaks | D. Stillman’s cleft |
102. Increases in steroid hormones are associated with significant increases in1 Mark
| A. Actinomyces viscosus | B. Prevotella intermedia |
| C. Streptococcus sanguis | D. Campylobacter rectus |
103.
The gingival crevicular fluid is increased in all except:1 Mark
| A. Gingivitis | B. Smoking |
| C. Periodontal pocket | D. Trauma from occlusion |
104.
Gingival abscess involves1 Mark
| A. Marginal | B. attached |
| C. inter dental | D. marginal & interdental |
105. What histologic criteria is used to distinguish gingivitis from periodontitis1 Mark
| A. Occlusal trauma | B. Howships lacunae |
| C. Bone Resorption | D. Endosteal Proliferation |
106.
Which of the following drugs is most frequently used in treating refractory periodontitis, including localized juvenile periodontitis?1 Mark
| A. Metronidazole and Amoxicillin | B. Tetracycline |
| C. Ciprofloxacin | D. Penicillin |
107. Tooth brush abrasions are more common on the1 Mark
| A. Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch | B. Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch |
| C. Maxillary teeth, on the right half of the arch | D. Maxillary teeth, on the left half of the arch |
108.
Gingivectomy is contraindicated in:1 Mark
| A. Gingival hyperplasia | B. Suprabony defects |
| C. Infrabony pockets | D. Phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia |
109.
The reverse bevel incision is made to1 Mark
| A. Allow atraumatic reflection of the gingival margin | B. Remove the infected tissue in the sulcus |
| C. Provide access to the alveolar crest | D. All of the above |
110.
One of the followingdrugs can slow the loss of alveolar bone in periodontitis:1 Mark
| A. Dexamethasone | B. Ibuprofen |
| C. Penicillin | D. Calcium channel blockers |
111. A wrought wire clasp is considered most effective in Kennedy class1 Mark
| A. III cases for periodontally weakened abutment teeth | B. I cases for periodontally weakened abutment teeth |
| C. II cases for the non edentulous side | D. IV cases with periodontally weakened teeth |
112. Main cause of RPD failure is:1 Mark
| A. Improper clasp design | B. Insufficient contact of teeth |
| C. Insufficient contact of teeth and improper clasp design | D. None of the above |
113. Indirect retainers of a partial denture:1 Mark
| A. Engages undercut areas | B. Must be constructed with flexible materials like plastics |
| C. Should resist rotatory forces about a fulcrum | D. Most effective when close to direct retainers |
114. The lingual bar connector should be located at least how many millimeters below the gingival margin?1 Mark
| A. 2 | B. 4 |
| C. 6 | D. 8 |
115. The main advantage of RPD over FPD in replacing bilateral lost teeth is1 Mark
| A. Cross arch stabilization | B. Aesthetics |
| C. Less expensive | D. Comfort to the patient |
116. Temporary restorations or crowns which match natural teeth in colour is1 Mark
| A. Celluloid | B. Gold restoration |
| C. Porcelain | D. ZOE restoration |
117. The best finish line for anterior metal ceramic crown is1 Mark
| A. Chamfer with bevel | B. Shoulder |
| C. Shoulder with bevel | D. Heavy chamfer |
118. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is1 Mark
| A. Modified ridge Lap | B. Ridge lap |
| C. Ovoid | D. Sanitary |
119. The inner surface of ceramic veneer is etched with:1 Mark
| A. 50% Phosphoric acid | B. 5% Hydrofluoric acid |
| C. 30% Polyacrylic acid | D. 35% Citric acid |
120. The amount of functional cusp reduction required for metal-ceramic crown is1 Mark
| A. 1.0 – 2.5 mm | B. 1.5 – 2.0 mm |
| C. 2.0-2.25 mm | D. 1.85 – 2.10 mm |
121. The most ideal finish line configuration for a porcelain veneer is1 Mark
| A. Feather | B. Chisel |
| C. Chamfer | D. Shoulder |
122. A pier abutment is:1 Mark
| A. Periodontal weak abutment | B. Edentulous space on one side of the abutment |
| C. With an edentulous space on mesial and distal sides of the abutment.. | D. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space |
123. Ante’s law concerns the1 Mark
| A. Degree of tipping allowable in an abutment tooth | B. Amount of increase in retentive factor with a full crown versus a three-Quarter crown |
| C. Amount of curvature acceptable in the plane of occlusion | D. None of these |
124. In a Balanced Occlusion, if the incisal guidance is increased, then there is1 Mark
| A. Increased condylar guidance | B. Increased curve of Spee |
| C. Increased plane of orientation | D. Cuspal height is decreased |
125. The characteristic of an “Arcon” articulator is1 Mark
| A. The condylar elements are placed on the upper member of the articulator | B. The condylar elements are non-movable |
| C. The condylar elements are placed on the lower member of the articulator | D. The inclination of condylar path is in a curved plane |
126. Relining of complete denture is not indicated when1 Mark
| A. Denture contains broken teeth | B. There is excessive resorption of the ridge |
| C. Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed | D. Centric relation does not coincide with centric occlusion |
127. The record of the position of the patients maxillary ridge in relation to the condyles is the1 Mark
| A. Jaw relation | B. Face bow record |
| C. Articulator | D. Centric jaw relation |
128. The function of posterior palatal seal is:1 Mark
| A. To aid in balanced occlusion | B. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture |
| C. To aid in insertion and removal of complete denture | D. Retention of mandibular denture by sealing its posterior margin |
129. Functional impression technique can be applied in1 Mark
| A. Uniformly firm ridge consistency | B. KMFE edge ridge |
| C. All variety of residual ridges | D. Displacable alveolar ridge |
130. Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only1 Mark
| A. If saliva is present | B. If principle of mucostatics is applied |
| C. If adequate peripheral seal is present | D. If good neuromuscular co-ordination is present |
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