Nepal Medical Council Licence Exam NMCLE Questions from Model Test with Solution 130 MCQs

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NMCLE Questions Model Test

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Marks : 180

1.

Gastric irritation is minimal with one of thefollowing non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs1 Mark

A. PiroxicamB. Tenoxicam
C. MenoxicamD. Indomithacin

2.

Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of1 Mark

A. Intrinsic pathwayB. Extrinsic pathway
C. Capillary FunctionD. All of the above

3.

Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to1 Mark

A. PCTB. DCT
C. Afferent arterioleD. Efferent arterioles

4.

Universal recipient blood group is1 Mark

A. O- veB. O+ve
C. AB-veD. AB+ve

5.

Western Blot is used for1 Mark

A. DNAB. Proteins
C. mRNAD. RNA

6.

Rapid Diagnosis of Tuberculosis is possible with1 Mark

A. Ziel-NelsonB. Kin Young Stain
C. Auramine Rhodamine stainD. Giemsa stain

7.

Half Life of HIV virus in Plasma is1 Mark

A. 20 hoursB. 6 hours
C. 12 hoursD. 3 months

8.

Facial muscles are derived from1 Mark

A. 1st branchial archB. 3rd branchial arch
C. 2nd branchial archD. 4th branchial arch

9.

TMJ is supplied mainly by:1 Mark

A. Masseteric and auriculotemporal nerveB. Superficial temporal nerve
C. Facial nerve peripheral branchD. Posterior auricular nerve

10.

Temperature of body is controlled by1 Mark

A. MedullaB. Diencephalon
C. Recentral gyrusD. Hypothalamus

11.

Gorgoyle cells are seen in:1 Mark

A. Gauchers diseaseB. Hurler syndrome
C. Lipoid proteinosisD. Hereditary fructose intolerance

12. A characteristic starry sky appearance seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma is due to:1 Mark

A. Aggregated macrophages, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debrisB. Scattered macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris
C. Aggregated macrophages, scarce clear cytoplasm often with cellular debrisD. Scattered macrophages,, abundant clear cytoplasm often with phagocytic cellular debris

13.

The ‘Abtropfung’ effect is the histological feature of:1 Mark

A. Common blue nevusB. Intradermal nevus
C. Junctional nevusD. Compound nevus

14. ‘Lavaflowing around boulders’ is a typical histological features of:1 Mark

A. Coronal dentin dysplasiaB. Radicular dentin dysplasia
C. Regional odontodysplasiaD. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 1

15.

The cystic lumen reveals degenerated keratin in onion rings fashion with stratifiedsquamous epithelium lacking rete processes. The most likely histologicaldiagnosis is:1 Mark

A. Epidermal cystB. Keratin cyst
C. Klestadt’s cystD. Epstein’s pearls

16. Hemangiopericytoma in histopathological examination shows1 Mark

A. Staghorn patternB. Touton type multinucleated giant cells
C. Neural invasionD. All of the above

17. There are papillary proliferations of bilayered oncocytic epithelium and lymphoid matrix show germinal centers. Cystic space contain eosinophillic coagulum (appears as chocolate colored fluid in gross specimen). The most likely diagnosis is:1 Mark

A. Warthin’s tumorB. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. OncocytomaD. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

18.

One  of the following is not the potential complications of dentigerous cyst:1 Mark

A. AmeloblastomaB. Keratocystic odontogenic tumor
C. Epidermoid carcinomaD. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

19. A parakeratinized surface which is corrugated with uniform thickness of epithelium (6-10 cells thick) with basal cells showing “Picket fence”appearance is the histological features of:1 Mark

A. Dentigerous cystB. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
C. Keratocystic odontogenic tumorD. Glandular odontogenic cyst

20.

One of the following odontogenic tumors originates from odontogenic epithelium withodontogenic ectomesenchyme with/without hard tissue formation:1 Mark

A. Squamous odontogenic tumorB. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C. AmeloblastomaD. Odontoameloblastoma

21.

The sequence of fall of hematopoietic factors during whole body radiation is:1 Mark

A. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th ErythrocyteB. 1st Granulocyte, 2nd Lymphocyte, 3rd Thrombocyte, 4th Erythrocyte
C. 1st Lymphocyte, 2nd Granulocyte, 3rd Erythrocyte, 4th ThrombocyteD. 1st Erythrocyte, 2nd Thrombocyte, 3rd Granulocyte, 4th Lymphocyte

22. All of the following are angiomatous syndrome except1 Mark

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndromeB. Bannayan-Zonana syndrome
C. Klippel-Trenaunay syndromeD. Maffucci’s syndrome

23.

Breslow’s tumor thickness and Clark’s level of invasion is used to assess prognosis ofone of the following tumors:1 Mark

A. Ameloblastic carcinomaB. Melanoacanthoma
C. Squamous cell carcinomaD. Malignant melanoma

24.

The correct representation of attenuation is:1 Mark

A. Attenuation = Absorption/scatteringB. Attenuation = Absorption + scattering
C. Attenuation = Absorption – scatteringD. Attenuation = Scattering/ absorption

25.

The traditional unit of equivalent dose is:1 Mark

A. RoentgenB. Rad
C. SeivertD. Rem

26. The complete series of image in CBCT is referred to as:1 Mark

A. Primary dataB. Projection data
C. Basis dataD. Frame data

27.

One of the following is correct time – temperature parameters followed during film processing:1 Mark

A. 72 degree F, 3 minB. 68 degree F, 4.5 min
C. 80 degreeF, 2.5 minD. 70 degree F, 4 min

28. Patient complains of jaw lock so that mouth would not open all way with limited mouthopening interfering with eating and chewing. Maximum stretch was <40mm> including vertical overlap. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
1 Mark

A. Disc displacement with reductionB. Disc displacement with reduction with intermittent locking
C. Disc displacement without reduction with limited mouth openingD. Disc displacement without reduction without limited opening

29.

The patient wearing complete denture presents with erythematous area over majorpart of denture covered region. This type of denture stomatitis is:1 Mark

A. Type IB. Type II
C. Type IIID. Type IV

30. One of the following regarding aphthous ulcers is mismatch:1 Mark

A. Minor: Most common (80%), <1.0 cm, lasting 7–14 days, no scarringB. Major: >1.0 cm, lasting weeks, often with scarring
C. Herpetiform: <1.0 cm, >10 ulcers, dispersed widely over mucosaD. Severe: Same as major, but ulcers present continuously

31. Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify1 Mark

A. True negativeB. False positive
C. False negativeD. True positive

32.

Screening for the oral cancer comes under whichlevel of prevention1 Mark

A. Primary levelB. Tertiary level
C. Secondary levelD. None of the above

33. ALL of the following measure the plaque index except:1 Mark

A. Ramjford indexB. Moller’s index
C. OHI-S indexD. Loe and Silness

34. Fluoride supplementfor a 3-year old child living in an area with fluoride content of 0.25 ppm is1 Mark

A. 0.25 mgB. 0.5 mg
C. 0.75 mgD. 1 mg

35.

Brudevold’s solution contains:1 Mark

A. 2 % SnF2B. 2 % NaF2
C. 1.23 percent sodium fluoride in 0.1 M orthophosphoric acidD. 2 percent sodium fluoride in 0.1 M orthophosphoric acid

36.

The use of pit and fissure sealant iscontraindicated in1 Mark

A. Arrested cariesB. Recalcitrant caries
C. Remedial cariesD. Rampant caries

37.

Best caries activity test used for field study is1 Mark

A. Lactobacillus count testB. Streptococcus mutans
C. Snyder’s testD. Saliva / tongue blade method

38.

The point at which the chlorine demand of wateris met is termed1 Mark

A. Break pointB. Loss of head
C. Back washD. Chlorine demand

39.

The W.H.O. periodontal probe (CPITN probe) has acolor coded black1 Mark

A. 0 to 0.5 mmB. 3 to 3.5 mm
C. 8.5 to 11.5 mmD. 3 to 5 mm

40.

What kind of sampling should be done when there is a small group of patients, easily available?1 Mark

A. Random samplingB. Multiphase sampling
C. Multistage samplingD. None of the above

41. Apicoectomy is contraindicated in1 Mark

A. Is not contraindicatedB. Over filled root canals
C. Lateral perforation at apical thirdD. Extensive bone loss

42. Which of the following needle is used for irrigation?1 Mark

A. 23B. 25
C. 27D. 29

43. Cholesterol crystals are occasionally present in which of the following Zone?1 Mark

A. Zone of contaminationB. Zone of irritation
C. Zone of necrosisD. Zone of stimulation

44. The enamel bevel of a gingival floor is done with:1 Mark

A. HatchetB. Curette
C. HoeD. Chisel

45. Reverase bevel is given for1 Mark

A. Convenience formB. Resistance from
C. Lap sliding fitD. To remove the undermined enamel

46. Polishing agent for amalgam1 Mark

A. Tin oxideB. Iron oxide
C. AluminaD. Silica

47. 2nd generation apex locators are based on1 Mark

A. ImpedanceB. Frequency
C. ResistanceD. Capacitance

48. The ideal method for restoring a fractured tooth is1 Mark

A. Open faced stainless steel crownB. Composite resin restoration
C. Reattachment of fractured tooth segmentD. Strip crown

49. Stabilisation of avulsed tooth requires1 Mark

A. 1-2 WeeksB. More than 6 Weeks
C. 2-3 WeeksD. 4-6 Weeks

50. Most common cause of RCT failure1 Mark

A. Incomplete removal of PA cystB. Incomplete debridement with improper obturation
C. Non-obturation of accessory canalsD. Large size of PA pathology

51. G.P. is softened by1 Mark

A. AlcoholB. Chloroform
C. EugenolD. EDTA

52. The number 12 in a 3 unit formula 12-6-8 indicates the blade is1 Mark

A. 12 mm in lengthB. 1.2 mm in length
C. 12 mm in widthD. 1.2 mm in width

53. Best marginal integrity is obtained with1 Mark

A. GICB. Gold foil
C. AmalgamD. Gold Inlay

54. The chemical used to etch enamel is1 Mark

A. Zinc oxideB. Methyl methacrylate
C. Phosphoric acidD. Eugenol

55. Cavity varnish is used for 1 Mark

A. To reduce thermal conductivityB. To reduce the permeability of acid into dentinal tubules
C. Action as an obtundantD. All of the above

56.

‘Saucering” out of smallpits to improve self cleansing property is called1 Mark

A. EnameloplastB. Saucerisation
C. OdontotomyD. None of the above

57.

The ISO 50 No.file with 4% taper at 10mm away from the tip has the diameter of :1 Mark

A. 0.80 mmB. 0.85 mm
C. 0.90 mmD. 0.95 mm

58.

The modern instrument capable ofdetecting temperature change as small as 0.1degree celsius which is used for measuring pulp vitality experimentally is:1 Mark

A. Hughes Probeye cameraB. Dual wavelength spectrophotometry
C. PhotoplethysmographyD. Digital thermometer

59.

The test that measures symmetry of bur-head in a dynamic condition which determines the minimum diameter of drill hole that can be prepared by that given bur is :1 Mark

A. ConcentricityB. Runout
C. ClearanceD. Flutes

60.

Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is in1 Mark

A. Cavosurface marginB. Contact area
C. Isthmus areaD. Proximal box

61. Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory before extraction in1 Mark

A. Ischemic heart diseaseB. Congestive heart failure
C. HypertensionD. Congenital heart disease

62. Tracheostomy is usually done between1 Mark

A. 1st and 2nd tracheal ringB. 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring
C. 3rd and 4th tracheal ringD. 4th and 5th tracheal ring

63. Which of the following component is absent in single-use dental cartridges of local anesthetic?1 Mark

A. MethylparabenB. Water
C. Sodium metabisulfiteD. Sodium chloride

64. Dautrey procedure is treatment modality for?1 Mark

A. TMJ ClickingB. TMJ dislocation
C. TMJ subluxationD. TMJ ankyloses

65. Most common medical emergency in dental office?1 Mark

A. Mild allergic reactionsB. Syncope
C. Postural hypotensionD. Epinephrine reaction

66.  Local anesthetic with high lipid solubility has1 Mark

A. Rapid onset of actionB. Increased potency
C. Longer duration of actionD. Greater vaso-dilator activity

67.

Colour coding of 27-gauge needle is1 Mark

A. BlueB. Yellow
C. RedD. Green

68. The volume of 2% lidocaine containing 1:80000 epinephrine which can be safely given to a cardiac patient is1 Mark

A. 3 mlB. 5 ml
C. 7 mlD. 8 ml

69. In an inferior alveolar nerve block, which of the following sensation is recovered first and in which tooth?1 Mark

A. Pain in central incisorB. Pain in third molar
C. Pressure in central incisorD. Pressure in third molar

70. Most paresthesias occurring as a complication local anesthetic resolve without treatment within approximately1 Mark

A. 2 weeksB. 6 weeks
C. 4 weeksD. 8 weeks

71. “Dumb-bell” shaped swelling is seen in1 Mark

A. Buccal space infectionB. Submandibular space infection
C. Pterygomandibular space infectionD. Temporal space infection

72. Among the following suture materials, which one elicits more tissue reaction1 Mark

A. CatgutB. Silk
C. NylonD. Prolene

73. Eminectomy is done for the treatment of1 Mark

A. TMJ ankylosisB. TMJ dislocation
C. Coronoid fractureD. All of the above

74. Treatment of odontogenic keratocyst extending into mandibular ramus is1 Mark

A. Enucleation without curettageB. Marsupialization without curettage
C. Enucleation with peripheral osteotomyD. Enbloc dissection

75.  Treatment of choice for traumatic bone cyst is1 Mark

A. Opening the cavity and inducing bleedingB. Enucleation of the cyst lining
C. Marsupialization of the cystD. Packing with BIPP and prevent bleeding and clot formation

76. After Le Fort I osteotomy blood supply of maxilla is maintained by1 Mark

A. Greater palatine arteryB. Anterior superior alveolar artery
C. Posterior superior alveolar arteryD. Ascending pharyngeal artery

77. The “Amber line” in Winter’s WAR line represents1 Mark

A. Amount of alveolar bone covering the impacted toothB. Imaginary point of application of elevator
C. Difference in occlusal level of 2nd and 3rd molarD. The angulation of the 3rd molar

78. Anti-mongoloid slant can be seen in which fracture?1 Mark

A. Le Fort I fractureB. Le Fort II fracture
C. Le Fort III fractureD. Naso-Orbito-Ethmoidal fracture

79. Sawhney Class III of TMJ ankyloses is?1 Mark

A. Fibrous adhesionB. Bony fusion of mandibular ramus and zygomatic arch
C. Bony fusion of misshaped condylar head and articular surfaceD. Entire joint replacement by bony block between ramus and skull base

80.

During CPR, chest compression should be?1 Mark

A. 2 inch/secondB. 2 inch/5 seconds
C. 1.5 inch/secondD. 1 inch/second

81. A distal shoe type of space maintainer is indicated in:1 Mark

A. Loss of primary anterior toothB. If the primary 2nd molar is lost before the eruption of permanent 1st molar
C. If the primary 2nd molar is lost after the eruption of permanent 1st molarD. Loss of primary 1st molar

82. A single force is applied to the crowns of the upper incisors. Tipping is around the point of rotation present at:1 Mark

A. InfinityB. Apical l/3rd
C. middle l/3rdD. Coronal l/3rd

83. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion. The angle ANB is frequently used in patients with severe class II malocclusions. This angle is1 Mark

A. LargeB. Small
C. NormalD. Negative

84. Permanent retainer is sometimes needed in cases of:1 Mark

A. Severe malocclusionB. Anterior cross bite
C. TranspositionD. Severe rotations

85. Anteroposterior relation of jaws is measured by:1 Mark

A. ANB angleB. Angle between SN & FH Plane
C. Angle between SN & mandibular planeD. Facial angle

86. Which of the following condition is always present in a Class II, Division 2 malocclusion?1 Mark

A. Closed biteB. Cross bite
C. Deep overbiteD. Open bite

87. The minimum force required to retard and redirect the maxillary growth1 Mark

A. 300 – 400 gm/sideB. 500 – 600 gm/side
C. 400 – 500 gm/sideD. 450 -550 gm/side

88. Edge wise bonded brackets are used1 Mark

A. On incisal edges of anterior teethB. To obtain edge to edge occlusion
C. With rectangular arch wireD. With labial arch wires at incisal and gingival edges of each bracket

89. The average leewayspace available in each half of mandible is1 Mark

A. 3.8 mmB. 1.7 mm
C. 2.4 mmD. 0.9 mm

90. When length of a spring is doubled, the effect is:1 Mark

A. DoubledB. Four times
C. Six timesD. Eight times

91. Supernumerary teeth are in all except 1 Mark

A. Ectodermal dysplasiaB. Cleft palate cases
C. Gardner’s syndromeD. Cleidocranial dysostosis

92. What unfavourable oral sequel is associated withprolonged use of antibiotics in children?1 Mark

A. Aphthous ulcersB. Acute necrotising gingivitis
C. Herpes simplex infectionD. Moniliasis

93. The % formaldehyde in buckely’s formocresol is 1 Mark

A. 15%B. 19%
C. 25%D. 20%

94.

The fastest film available for dental radiography is:1 Mark

A. AB. B
C. DD. E

95.

Waddell triad of injuries involves:1 Mark

A. Head, neck and shouldersB. Head, neck and torso
C. Head, torso and upper extremityD. Head, torso and lower extremity

96.

Give the diagnosis for a neonate withasymptomatic, multiple nodular white lesions along the midpalatine raphe.1 Mark

A. Epstein pearlsB. Bohn’s nodules
C. Dental lamina cystsD. Primary herpetic lesion

97. The level of needle while giving inferior alveolar nerve block in children above 6 years of age is:1 Mark

A. Much below the occlusal levelB. Below the occlusal level
C. At the occlusal levelD. Above the occlusal level

98. Sealants are retained onto the enamel surface mainly by:1 Mark

A. Direct adhesiveness of the sealantB. Sealant penetration into the etched enamel
C. Mechanical retention into the deep pits and fissuresD. Chemical bonding between the sealant and the enamel

99.

Which vitamin is used in the prevention ofdental caries?1 Mark

A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin ED. Vitamin K

100. Chronic periapical infection in primary molars is firstnoted as 1 Mark

A. Rarefaction of bony furcationB. As internal resorption
C. As rarefaction of Periapical tissuesD. Widening of Periodontal ligament space

101.

Life-saver shaped enlargements of the marginal gingival are called1 Mark

A. Gingival craterB. McCall festoons
C. Window peaksD. Stillman’s cleft

102.  Increases in steroid hormones are associated with significant increases in1 Mark

A. Actinomyces viscosusB. Prevotella intermedia
C. Streptococcus sanguisD. Campylobacter rectus

103.

The gingival crevicular fluid is increased in all except:1 Mark

A. GingivitisB. Smoking
C. Periodontal pocketD. Trauma from occlusion

104.

Gingival abscess involves1 Mark

A. MarginalB. attached
C. inter dentalD. marginal & interdental

105. What histologic criteria is used to distinguish gingivitis from periodontitis1 Mark

A. Occlusal traumaB. Howships lacunae
C. Bone ResorptionD. Endosteal Proliferation

106.

Which of the following drugs is most frequently used in treating refractory periodontitis, including localized juvenile periodontitis?1 Mark

A. Metronidazole and AmoxicillinB. Tetracycline
C. CiprofloxacinD. Penicillin

107. Tooth brush abrasions are more common on the1 Mark

A. Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the archB. Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch
C. Maxillary teeth, on the right half of the archD. Maxillary teeth, on the left half of the arch

108.

Gingivectomy is contraindicated in:1 Mark

A. Gingival hyperplasiaB. Suprabony defects
C. Infrabony pocketsD. Phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia

109.

The reverse bevel incision is made to1 Mark

A. Allow atraumatic reflection of the gingival marginB. Remove the infected tissue in the sulcus
C. Provide access to the alveolar crestD. All of the above

110.

One of the followingdrugs can slow the loss of alveolar bone in periodontitis:1 Mark

A. DexamethasoneB. Ibuprofen
C. PenicillinD. Calcium channel blockers

111. A wrought wire clasp is considered most effective in Kennedy class1 Mark

A. III cases for periodontally weakened abutment teethB. I cases for periodontally weakened abutment teeth
C. II cases for the non edentulous sideD. IV cases with periodontally weakened teeth

112. Main cause of RPD failure is:1 Mark

A. Improper clasp designB. Insufficient contact of teeth
C. Insufficient contact of teeth and improper clasp designD. None of the above

113. Indirect retainers of a partial denture:1 Mark

A. Engages undercut areasB. Must be constructed with flexible materials like plastics
C. Should resist rotatory forces about a fulcrumD. Most effective when close to direct retainers

114. The lingual bar connector should be located at least how many millimeters below the gingival margin?1 Mark

A. 2B. 4
C. 6D. 8

115. The main advantage of RPD over FPD in replacing bilateral lost teeth is1 Mark

A. Cross arch stabilizationB. Aesthetics
C. Less expensiveD. Comfort to the patient

116. Temporary restorations or crowns which match natural teeth in colour is1 Mark

A. CelluloidB. Gold restoration
C. PorcelainD. ZOE restoration

117. The best finish line for anterior metal ceramic crown is1 Mark

A. Chamfer with bevelB. Shoulder
C. Shoulder with bevelD. Heavy chamfer

118. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is1 Mark

A. Modified ridge LapB. Ridge lap
C. OvoidD. Sanitary

119. The inner surface of ceramic veneer is etched with:1 Mark

A. 50% Phosphoric acidB. 5% Hydrofluoric acid
C. 30% Polyacrylic acidD. 35% Citric acid

120. The amount of functional cusp reduction required for metal-ceramic crown is1 Mark

A. 1.0 – 2.5 mmB. 1.5 – 2.0 mm
C. 2.0-2.25 mmD. 1.85 – 2.10 mm

121. The most ideal finish line configuration for a porcelain veneer is1 Mark

A. FeatherB. Chisel
C. ChamferD. Shoulder

122. A pier abutment is:1 Mark

A. Periodontal weak abutmentB. Edentulous space on one side of the abutment
C. With an edentulous space on mesial and distal sides of the abutment..D. Abutment adjacent to edentulous space

123. Ante’s law concerns the1 Mark

A. Degree of tipping allowable in an abutment toothB. Amount of increase in retentive factor with a full crown versus a three-Quarter crown
C. Amount of curvature acceptable in the plane of occlusionD. None of these

124. In a Balanced Occlusion, if the incisal guidance is increased, then there is1 Mark

A. Increased condylar guidanceB. Increased curve of Spee
C. Increased plane of orientationD. Cuspal height is decreased

125. The characteristic of an “Arcon” articulator is1 Mark

A. The condylar elements are placed on the upper member of the articulatorB. The condylar elements are non-movable
C. The condylar elements are placed on the lower member of the articulatorD. The inclination of condylar path is in a curved plane

126. Relining of complete denture is not indicated when1 Mark

A. Denture contains broken teethB. There is excessive resorption of the ridge
C. Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changedD. Centric relation does not coincide with centric occlusion

127. The record of the position of the patients maxillary ridge in relation to the condyles is the1 Mark

A. Jaw relationB. Face bow record
C. ArticulatorD. Centric jaw relation

128. The function of posterior palatal seal is:1 Mark

A. To aid in balanced occlusionB. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture
C. To aid in insertion and removal of complete dentureD. Retention of mandibular denture by sealing its posterior margin

129. Functional impression technique can be applied in1 Mark

A. Uniformly firm ridge consistencyB. KMFE edge ridge
C. All variety of residual ridgesD. Displacable alveolar ridge

130. Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only1 Mark

A. If saliva is presentB. If principle of mucostatics is applied
C. If adequate peripheral seal is presentD. If good neuromuscular co-ordination is present


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