Nepal Medical Council Licence Exam NMCLE Questions from Model Test with Solution 10 CSQs

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NMCLE Questions Model Test CSQs

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131.

A 40 year femalecomplains of spontaneous gingival bleeding in an area of 12 which is persistentand often perfuse. There are multiple petechias present in hands and legs.Patient also complains of frequent epistaxis. Spontaneous clinicalhemorrhage is usually not observed with platelet count above:1 Mark

A. 10000-20000cells/mm3B. 20000-30000 cells/mm3
C. 30000-40000 cells/mm3D. 40000-50000 cells/mm3

132. One of the following is not the laboratory tests for assessing hemostatis:1 Mark

A. Platelet countB. PT/INR
C. aPTTD. CT

133. On further investigation patient had decreased platelet count and increased bleeding time with normal PT/INR and APTT. The least likely diagnosis is:1 Mark

A. ThrombocytopeniaB. Vascular wall defect
C. LeukemiaD. Liver disease

134. Surgical hemorrhage is most likely to occur with platelet counts below:1 Mark

A. 100000 cells/mm3B. 80000 cells/mm3
C. 70000 cells/mm3D. 50000 cells/mm3

135. The extrinsic factor in coagulation cascade is:1 Mark

A. Hageman factorB. Christmas factor
C. Stuart factorD. Antihemophillic factor

136. A 10year child comes to dental office one hour after injury 11. The crown is fractured till the middle third with large pulp exposure. Radiograph reveals open apex. Tooth was vital. What is the Ellis classification?1 Mark

A. 5B. 4
C. 3D. 2

137. What is the treatment of choice?1 Mark

A. Pulpectomy with MTAB. Pulpotomy with MTA
C. Smooth the edges and protect the exposed with ZOED. Direct pulp capping

138. The patient came after 3months. EPT reveals non response. What is the real measure of pulp vitality?1 Mark

A. Laser Doppler FlowmetryB. Pulp oximetry
C. Dual wavelength spectrometryD. Hughes probeye camera

139. Apexification was advised. What is not the composition of white MTA?1 Mark

A. Bismuth oxideB. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
C. Tricalcium aluminateD. Dicalcium silicate

140. MTA used in apexification1 Mark

A. Forms an integral part of root canal fillingB. Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses
C. Has not yielded good resultsD. Is available in a paste form

141.

40-year-old female came with complain of enlarged gums since 1months. She as started some medication for asthma 1months ago and for hypertension 2months ago. O/E plaque, calculus, pockets and gingival inflammation was observed. The base of the pocket was at CEJ. The type of pocket is
1 Mark

A. Periodontal PocketB. Gingival pocket
C. True pocketD. Infrabony pocket

142. The group of drugs that may be reason for the enlargement is1 Mark

A. Calcium channel blockerB. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
C. Anticholinergic drugsD. Bronchodilators

143. Incidence of Gingival Enlargement due to phenytoin is highest in1 Mark

A. ChildrenB. Young adult
C. Middle agedD. Above 60years

144. The safer alternative of the drug causing enlargement is1 Mark

A. IsradipineB. Nifedipine
C. CaptoprilD. Hydrocortisone

145. The treatment you would suggest the patient is?1 Mark

A. Oral prophylaxis and GingivectomyB. Drug alteration and oral prophylaxis
C. Gingivectomy and drug alterationD. Wait and watch

146.

A 12-year-old boy reported with a class IIand div 1 malocclusion with proclined upper incisor and deep bite. Intraoralexamination revealed a bilaterally symmetrical face, convex profile,potentially competent lips with normal incisor display during rest and smile.Cephalometric finding showed that the patient had a horizontal growth directionwith CVMI stage III, increased overjet and normal lower incisor inclination What would be the appliance of choicefor this patient 1 Mark

A. Twin blockB. Activator
C. BioatorD. Supermarionator

147.

What is the right time to start deep bitecorrection with The appliance you have chosen1 Mark

A. 1 weekB. 2 week
C. 3 weekD. 4 week

148.

What is the best method to preventproclination of lower incisors while treating a case with Twin Block appliance1 Mark

A. Inter proximal reduction of lower incisorsB. Guided eruption
C. Incisor cappingD. Lip pads

149.

After completion of orthodontic treatmentpatient is advised to have  Retentionappliance which should be1 Mark

A. Retentive onlyB. Passive only
C. Passive + retentiveD. Active + retentive

150.

The time duration taken for the periodontalfibers to realign themselves after orthodontic treatment is1 Mark

A. 28 daysB. 90 days
C. 120 daysD. 280 days

151.

A 65- years old completely edentulous male,Mr. Ramesh Oli, presents requiring maxillary and mandibular complete denturesto restore form, function, and aesthetics. He has been edentulous in themaxilla for the past 15yrs and had his mandibular anterior incisors extractedabout 8 months ago. He presents with a chief complaint of: ‘I need new teeth(dentures).’ The patient states that his present dentures are ill-fitting andthey move when he eats and speaks. His lips are moist, symmetric, normal insize and shape with mild angular cheilitis present. Intraoral examinationreveals moderately inflamed oral tissues consistent with an ill-fittingdenture: however, the amount of alveolar bone present is adequate for denturesupport Before making the preliminaryimpression for complete maxillary and mandibular dentures one should: 1 Mark

A. Perform a thorough intraoral exam to evaluate the oral cavity and the health of the soft and hard tissues that will support the denturesB. Resolve any inflammation or infection present
C. Both A and BD. Examine the existing prostheses where applicable
E. All of the above

152.

What could be the etiologicalfactors contributing to Mr.Oli’s angular Cheilitis ?1 Mark

A. The presence of candida and an ill-fitting denture with loss of vertical dimension of occlusionB. A dry mouth
C. Inadequate oral hygiene practicesD. An ill-fitting denture with excessive vertical dimension
E. Both B and C

153.

When considering thereestablishment of the proper vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO), whichstatement is true?1 Mark

A. VDO is also known as freeway spaceB. The VDO and the interocclusal distance are not equal to VDR
C. VDO is the vertical length of the face as measured between 2 arbitrary points selected above and below the mouth when natural teeth or wax rims are in contact in centricD. The VDO is always greater than vertical dimension of rest VDR
E. Both C and D

154.

Custom trays made from anadequate diagnostic cast should be1 Mark

A. Constructed without a handleB. Made to create an overextended final cast
C. Made with a rigid dimensionally stable tray material and be border moldedD. Cut short 6mm from the depth of vestibule captured in the diagnostic cast
E. Both C and D

155. The patient returns after 3 weeks complaining of speech problems especially with ‘f’ sounds which sound like ‘v’. What could be the reason1 Mark

A. This is part of the normal adaption processB. Maxillary Incisor teeth set too far down
C. Maxillary Incisor teeth set too far upD. Insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion
E. Mandibular incisor teeth set too far up

156.

30 years old male presents to theprosthodontist’s office with the following chief complaint: “ I was in a fightand got my two front teeth broken and need them fixed.” He was referred to theprosthodontist after his primary/general dentist performed root canal treatmenton both the lateral incisor and the central incisor. His oral hygiene is fairand his caries index is low. 

1) After emergency patient care, which ofthe following treatment sequences is recommended?1 Mark

A. Mount study casts, diagnostic wax-up, preparation, and provisional crownsB. Preparation and provisional crowns only
C. Crown- lengthening procedure, preparation, and provisional crownsD. Crown-lengthening procedure, endodontics, and then preparation and provisionalisation
E. Endodontics and composite restoration

157. Ina fractured central incisor, if the remaining tooth structure is insufficientto adequately retain a restoration :1 Mark

A. Use pins to aid in the buildup of the coreB. Prophylactic endodontic treatment should be considered
C. Cut in retention channelsD. No additional treatment is needed
E. Both A and C

158. Thefollowing crown types should be considered when restoring anterior teeth1 Mark

A. All – ceramic crownsB. Porcelain fused to metal crowns
C. Captek crownsD. Zirconia crowns
E. All can be good options

159. Thefollowing item(s) should be considered when treatment planning an anteriorrestoration except 1 Mark

A. Preparation design, finish lineB. Shade selection method
C. Type of ceramicD. Type of luting cement
E. All are vital to the success of the case

160. Propermaintenance of all-ceramic anterior restorations is achieved by 1 Mark

A. Wearing an occlusal guardB. Maintaining appropriate recall visits
C. Proper oral hygiene regimenD. All of the above
E. Only B and C

161.

A 20-year-oldfemale patient presented with complains of pain on taking cold and sweet inupper left posterior teeth.  Proximalcaries in the mesial surface of 24 was confirmed by bitewing radiograph and DIAGNOdent.The DIAGNOdent is a laserfluorescence device that has demonstrated promising results for the detectionof dental caries. It shows the followingfeature1 Mark

A. Difficult to distinguish dentinal caries from enamel cariesB. Its specificity is much higher than both the visual and radiographic methods.
C. Unable to detect secondary caries under composite restorationsD. It is an effective tool in monitoring mineral loss over time.

162.

The composite restoration was planned for thecase. The procedure performed consisted of registration of occlusal contacts, toothpreparation, shade selection, restoration with composite resin, occlusaladjustment, finishing and polishing.Maxillary premolar with MO cavity; following is important about theapplication of the matrix band.1 Mark

A. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB. Small lingual pulp
C. High buccal pulp hornD. High lingual pulp horn

163.

The ‘wet bonding technique’ accepts thefollowing strategies for the successful bond. EXCEPT1 Mark

A. A glistering hydrated surface to prevent the collapse of collagen fibres.B. Rewetting the dried etched dentin with water-saturated applicator tip.
C. Acetone based bonding agent to open interfibrillar spaces in collapsed collagen fibres.D. Inclusion of water in the composition of adhesive that may help in rewetting the collapsed fibres.

164.

For class II resin composite restoration, the use of sectional matrix system and separation rings to obtain tight proximal contacts is preferred. Following are the sectional matrix system.  i) Palodent Plus ii) Ferrier double-bow iii) Composi- Tight 3D iv) Triodent V3 ring1 Mark

A. i, ii, iii are correctB. i , iii, iv are correct
C. ii, iii, iv are correctD. only iv is correct

165. The surface layer responsible for the addition of composite layers is:1 Mark

A. Electron inhibited surface layerB. Ion inhibited surface layer
C. Oxygen inhibited surface layerD. Hydrogen inhibited surface layer

166.

A19-year-male visited Department of Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics. Thepatient complains of painIntraoral examination showed a large polypoid lesion about 1.5cm ×1.5cmwide with a 2mm diameter stalk protruding from the carious cavity of 46. Pulpalgrowth was pale pink and was covering the entire carious cavity. Radiographicexamination revealed radiolucency extending till the middle third of the toothand widening of periodontal ligament space. Endodontic Diagnosis of the above-mentioned case is1 Mark

A. Reversible pulpitisB. Acute Irreversible pulpitis
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitisD. Apical periodontitis

167.

Root canal treatment of the case was planned. After application of the rubber dam, an access cavity was preparedWorking lengths were determined electronically using an apex locator andconfirmed radiographically. The root canals were instrumented, Thefollowing is an important consideration of the intrapulpal injection1 Mark

A. The injection should be given with back-pressureB. It will take several minutes for the injection to take effect
C. A long-acting anaesthetic should be usedD. Provides anaesthesia for a prolonged duration

168.

The greatest contributingfactor that predisposes to cuspal fracture of an endodontically treated toothis1 Mark

A. Occlusal access openingB. Amalgam core build-up
C. Loss of one or more marginal ridgesD. Composite core build-up

169.

A higher concentration ofsodium hypochloride (NaOCl) is not always desirable because1 Mark

A. Dissolve necrotic organic tissueB. Effect on the flexural strength of dentin
C. Reacts with the exudate to form saltsD. Have prolonged antimicrobial effect

170.

Disadvantages of lateralcompaction obturation techniques with gutta-percha;1 Mark

A. Difficulty to maintain the proper length of obturationB. Difficulty in achieving homogenous mass
C. Difficulty to prepare post spaceD. Difficulty to remove gutta-percha during retreatment

171.

A65-year-old male patient with Hemophilia-A presented to dental department withchief complain of pain in left back region of lower jaw since 1 week. Onexamination, 36  was grossly carious andextraction was planned. The clotting factor deficientin Hemophilia-A is1 Mark

A. Factor XIIIB. Factor IX
C. Factor XD. Factor XI

172. Hemophilia-A is1 Mark

A. X-linked dominantB. X-linked recessive
C. Autosomal dominantD. Autosomal recessive

173. Which of the following blood investigation should be done before extraction?1 Mark

A. BTB. PT
C. aPTTD. INR

174. The lab test result reveals that the patient is prone to prolonged bleeding. Which of the following can be given to the patient?1 Mark

A. Whole bloodB. Cryoprecipitate
C. Fresh frozen plasmaD. Platelet Rich Plasma

175. Whichof the following injection technique should be preferred for the patient?1 Mark

A. Local InfiltrationB. Field block
C. Nerve blockD. Intraligamentary

176.

A 20-year-old male presentedwith injuries on face following a road traffic accident. He had periorbitalecchymosis and “Dish Face” deformity along with bruises on face. The patientalso complains of blood tinged watery discharge from nose following trauma. The most likely fracture is1 Mark

A. Le Fort I fracture#B. Le Fort II fracture
C. Le Fort III fractureD. Orbital floor fracture

177. “Dish Face” deformity is seen in this fracture because of1 Mark

A. Posterior and downward movement of maxillaB. Anterior and forward movement of maxilla
C. Anterior and downward movement of maxillaD. Nasal complex fracture

178. CSF rhinorrhea can be differentiated by all except1 Mark

A. High protein contentB. High glucose content
C. Beta-2 transferrinD. Tramline pattern

179. CSF otorrhea is a feature of1 Mark

A. Fracture of cribiform plateB. Fracture of ethmoid bone
C. Fracture of occipital boneD. Fracture of parietal part of temporal bone

180. The most complication of CSF rhinorrhea is1 Mark

A. Ascending meningitisB. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
C. BlindnessD. Brain herniation

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