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NMCLE Questions Model Test CSQs

131.
A 40 year femalecomplains of spontaneous gingival bleeding in an area of 12 which is persistentand often perfuse. There are multiple petechias present in hands and legs.Patient also complains of frequent epistaxis. Spontaneous clinicalhemorrhage is usually not observed with platelet count above:1 Mark
A. 10000-20000cells/mm3 | B. 20000-30000 cells/mm3 |
C. 30000-40000 cells/mm3 | D. 40000-50000 cells/mm3 |
132. One of the following is not the laboratory tests for assessing hemostatis:1 Mark
A. Platelet count | B. PT/INR |
C. aPTT | D. CT |
133. On further investigation patient had decreased platelet count and increased bleeding time with normal PT/INR and APTT. The least likely diagnosis is:1 Mark
A. Thrombocytopenia | B. Vascular wall defect |
C. Leukemia | D. Liver disease |
134. Surgical hemorrhage is most likely to occur with platelet counts below:1 Mark
A. 100000 cells/mm3 | B. 80000 cells/mm3 |
C. 70000 cells/mm3 | D. 50000 cells/mm3 |
135. The extrinsic factor in coagulation cascade is:1 Mark
A. Hageman factor | B. Christmas factor |
C. Stuart factor | D. Antihemophillic factor |
136. A 10year child comes to dental office one hour after injury 11. The crown is fractured till the middle third with large pulp exposure. Radiograph reveals open apex. Tooth was vital. What is the Ellis classification?1 Mark
A. 5 | B. 4 |
C. 3 | D. 2 |
137. What is the treatment of choice?1 Mark
A. Pulpectomy with MTA | B. Pulpotomy with MTA |
C. Smooth the edges and protect the exposed with ZOE | D. Direct pulp capping |
138. The patient came after 3months. EPT reveals non response. What is the real measure of pulp vitality?1 Mark
A. Laser Doppler Flowmetry | B. Pulp oximetry |
C. Dual wavelength spectrometry | D. Hughes probeye camera |
139. Apexification was advised. What is not the composition of white MTA?1 Mark
A. Bismuth oxide | B. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite |
C. Tricalcium aluminate | D. Dicalcium silicate |
140. MTA used in apexification1 Mark
A. Forms an integral part of root canal filling | B. Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses |
C. Has not yielded good results | D. Is available in a paste form |
141.
40-year-old female came with complain of enlarged gums since 1months. She as started some medication for asthma 1months ago and for hypertension 2months ago. O/E plaque, calculus, pockets and gingival inflammation was observed. The base of the pocket was at CEJ. The type of pocket is
1 Mark
A. Periodontal Pocket | B. Gingival pocket |
C. True pocket | D. Infrabony pocket |
142. The group of drugs that may be reason for the enlargement is1 Mark
A. Calcium channel blocker | B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors |
C. Anticholinergic drugs | D. Bronchodilators |
143. Incidence of Gingival Enlargement due to phenytoin is highest in1 Mark
A. Children | B. Young adult |
C. Middle aged | D. Above 60years |
144. The safer alternative of the drug causing enlargement is1 Mark
A. Isradipine | B. Nifedipine |
C. Captopril | D. Hydrocortisone |
145. The treatment you would suggest the patient is?1 Mark
A. Oral prophylaxis and Gingivectomy | B. Drug alteration and oral prophylaxis |
C. Gingivectomy and drug alteration | D. Wait and watch |
146.
A 12-year-old boy reported with a class IIand div 1 malocclusion with proclined upper incisor and deep bite. Intraoralexamination revealed a bilaterally symmetrical face, convex profile,potentially competent lips with normal incisor display during rest and smile.Cephalometric finding showed that the patient had a horizontal growth directionwith CVMI stage III, increased overjet and normal lower incisor inclination What would be the appliance of choicefor this patient 1 Mark
A. Twin block | B. Activator |
C. Bioator | D. Supermarionator |
147.
What is the right time to start deep bitecorrection with The appliance you have chosen1 Mark
A. 1 week | B. 2 week |
C. 3 week | D. 4 week |
148.
What is the best method to preventproclination of lower incisors while treating a case with Twin Block appliance1 Mark
A. Inter proximal reduction of lower incisors | B. Guided eruption |
C. Incisor capping | D. Lip pads |
149.
After completion of orthodontic treatmentpatient is advised to have Retentionappliance which should be1 Mark
A. Retentive only | B. Passive only |
C. Passive + retentive | D. Active + retentive |
150.
The time duration taken for the periodontalfibers to realign themselves after orthodontic treatment is1 Mark
A. 28 days | B. 90 days |
C. 120 days | D. 280 days |
151.
A 65- years old completely edentulous male,Mr. Ramesh Oli, presents requiring maxillary and mandibular complete denturesto restore form, function, and aesthetics. He has been edentulous in themaxilla for the past 15yrs and had his mandibular anterior incisors extractedabout 8 months ago. He presents with a chief complaint of: ‘I need new teeth(dentures).’ The patient states that his present dentures are ill-fitting andthey move when he eats and speaks. His lips are moist, symmetric, normal insize and shape with mild angular cheilitis present. Intraoral examinationreveals moderately inflamed oral tissues consistent with an ill-fittingdenture: however, the amount of alveolar bone present is adequate for denturesupport Before making the preliminaryimpression for complete maxillary and mandibular dentures one should: 1 Mark
A. Perform a thorough intraoral exam to evaluate the oral cavity and the health of the soft and hard tissues that will support the dentures | B. Resolve any inflammation or infection present |
C. Both A and B | D. Examine the existing prostheses where applicable |
E. All of the above | |
152.
What could be the etiologicalfactors contributing to Mr.Oli’s angular Cheilitis ?1 Mark
A. The presence of candida and an ill-fitting denture with loss of vertical dimension of occlusion | B. A dry mouth |
C. Inadequate oral hygiene practices | D. An ill-fitting denture with excessive vertical dimension |
E. Both B and C | |
153.
When considering thereestablishment of the proper vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO), whichstatement is true?1 Mark
A. VDO is also known as freeway space | B. The VDO and the interocclusal distance are not equal to VDR |
C. VDO is the vertical length of the face as measured between 2 arbitrary points selected above and below the mouth when natural teeth or wax rims are in contact in centric | D. The VDO is always greater than vertical dimension of rest VDR |
E. Both C and D | |
154.
Custom trays made from anadequate diagnostic cast should be1 Mark
A. Constructed without a handle | B. Made to create an overextended final cast |
C. Made with a rigid dimensionally stable tray material and be border molded | D. Cut short 6mm from the depth of vestibule captured in the diagnostic cast |
E. Both C and D | |
155. The patient returns after 3 weeks complaining of speech problems especially with ‘f’ sounds which sound like ‘v’. What could be the reason1 Mark
A. This is part of the normal adaption process | B. Maxillary Incisor teeth set too far down |
C. Maxillary Incisor teeth set too far up | D. Insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion |
E. Mandibular incisor teeth set too far up | |
156.
30 years old male presents to theprosthodontist’s office with the following chief complaint: “ I was in a fightand got my two front teeth broken and need them fixed.” He was referred to theprosthodontist after his primary/general dentist performed root canal treatmenton both the lateral incisor and the central incisor. His oral hygiene is fairand his caries index is low.
1) After emergency patient care, which ofthe following treatment sequences is recommended?1 Mark
A. Mount study casts, diagnostic wax-up, preparation, and provisional crowns | B. Preparation and provisional crowns only |
C. Crown- lengthening procedure, preparation, and provisional crowns | D. Crown-lengthening procedure, endodontics, and then preparation and provisionalisation |
E. Endodontics and composite restoration | |
157. Ina fractured central incisor, if the remaining tooth structure is insufficientto adequately retain a restoration :1 Mark
A. Use pins to aid in the buildup of the core | B. Prophylactic endodontic treatment should be considered |
C. Cut in retention channels | D. No additional treatment is needed |
E. Both A and C | |
158. Thefollowing crown types should be considered when restoring anterior teeth1 Mark
A. All – ceramic crowns | B. Porcelain fused to metal crowns |
C. Captek crowns | D. Zirconia crowns |
E. All can be good options | |
159. Thefollowing item(s) should be considered when treatment planning an anteriorrestoration except 1 Mark
A. Preparation design, finish line | B. Shade selection method |
C. Type of ceramic | D. Type of luting cement |
E. All are vital to the success of the case | |
160. Propermaintenance of all-ceramic anterior restorations is achieved by 1 Mark
A. Wearing an occlusal guard | B. Maintaining appropriate recall visits |
C. Proper oral hygiene regimen | D. All of the above |
E. Only B and C | |
161.
A 20-year-oldfemale patient presented with complains of pain on taking cold and sweet inupper left posterior teeth. Proximalcaries in the mesial surface of 24 was confirmed by bitewing radiograph and DIAGNOdent.The DIAGNOdent is a laserfluorescence device that has demonstrated promising results for the detectionof dental caries. It shows the followingfeature1 Mark
A. Difficult to distinguish dentinal caries from enamel caries | B. Its specificity is much higher than both the visual and radiographic methods. |
C. Unable to detect secondary caries under composite restorations | D. It is an effective tool in monitoring mineral loss over time. |
162.
The composite restoration was planned for thecase. The procedure performed consisted of registration of occlusal contacts, toothpreparation, shade selection, restoration with composite resin, occlusaladjustment, finishing and polishing.Maxillary premolar with MO cavity; following is important about theapplication of the matrix band.1 Mark
A. The mesial concavity of the root surface | B. Small lingual pulp |
C. High buccal pulp horn | D. High lingual pulp horn |
163.
The ‘wet bonding technique’ accepts thefollowing strategies for the successful bond. EXCEPT1 Mark
A. A glistering hydrated surface to prevent the collapse of collagen fibres. | B. Rewetting the dried etched dentin with water-saturated applicator tip. |
C. Acetone based bonding agent to open interfibrillar spaces in collapsed collagen fibres. | D. Inclusion of water in the composition of adhesive that may help in rewetting the collapsed fibres. |
164.
For class II resin composite restoration, the use of sectional matrix system and separation rings to obtain tight proximal contacts is preferred. Following are the sectional matrix system. i) Palodent Plus ii) Ferrier double-bow iii) Composi- Tight 3D iv) Triodent V3 ring1 Mark
A. i, ii, iii are correct | B. i , iii, iv are correct |
C. ii, iii, iv are correct | D. only iv is correct |
165. The surface layer responsible for the addition of composite layers is:1 Mark
A. Electron inhibited surface layer | B. Ion inhibited surface layer |
C. Oxygen inhibited surface layer | D. Hydrogen inhibited surface layer |
166.
A19-year-male visited Department of Conservative Dentistry and Endodontics. Thepatient complains of painIntraoral examination showed a large polypoid lesion about 1.5cm ×1.5cmwide with a 2mm diameter stalk protruding from the carious cavity of 46. Pulpalgrowth was pale pink and was covering the entire carious cavity. Radiographicexamination revealed radiolucency extending till the middle third of the toothand widening of periodontal ligament space. Endodontic Diagnosis of the above-mentioned case is1 Mark
A. Reversible pulpitis | B. Acute Irreversible pulpitis |
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis | D. Apical periodontitis |
167.
Root canal treatment of the case was planned. After application of the rubber dam, an access cavity was preparedWorking lengths were determined electronically using an apex locator andconfirmed radiographically. The root canals were instrumented, Thefollowing is an important consideration of the intrapulpal injection1 Mark
A. The injection should be given with back-pressure | B. It will take several minutes for the injection to take effect |
C. A long-acting anaesthetic should be used | D. Provides anaesthesia for a prolonged duration |
168.
The greatest contributingfactor that predisposes to cuspal fracture of an endodontically treated toothis1 Mark
A. Occlusal access opening | B. Amalgam core build-up |
C. Loss of one or more marginal ridges | D. Composite core build-up |
169.
A higher concentration ofsodium hypochloride (NaOCl) is not always desirable because1 Mark
A. Dissolve necrotic organic tissue | B. Effect on the flexural strength of dentin |
C. Reacts with the exudate to form salts | D. Have prolonged antimicrobial effect |
170.
Disadvantages of lateralcompaction obturation techniques with gutta-percha;1 Mark
A. Difficulty to maintain the proper length of obturation | B. Difficulty in achieving homogenous mass |
C. Difficulty to prepare post space | D. Difficulty to remove gutta-percha during retreatment |
171.
A65-year-old male patient with Hemophilia-A presented to dental department withchief complain of pain in left back region of lower jaw since 1 week. Onexamination, 36 was grossly carious andextraction was planned. The clotting factor deficientin Hemophilia-A is1 Mark
A. Factor XIII | B. Factor IX |
C. Factor X | D. Factor XI |
172. Hemophilia-A is1 Mark
A. X-linked dominant | B. X-linked recessive |
C. Autosomal dominant | D. Autosomal recessive |
173. Which of the following blood investigation should be done before extraction?1 Mark
A. BT | B. PT |
C. aPTT | D. INR |
174. The lab test result reveals that the patient is prone to prolonged bleeding. Which of the following can be given to the patient?1 Mark
A. Whole blood | B. Cryoprecipitate |
C. Fresh frozen plasma | D. Platelet Rich Plasma |
175. Whichof the following injection technique should be preferred for the patient?1 Mark
A. Local Infiltration | B. Field block |
C. Nerve block | D. Intraligamentary |
176.
A 20-year-old male presentedwith injuries on face following a road traffic accident. He had periorbitalecchymosis and “Dish Face” deformity along with bruises on face. The patientalso complains of blood tinged watery discharge from nose following trauma. The most likely fracture is1 Mark
A. Le Fort I fracture# | B. Le Fort II fracture |
C. Le Fort III fracture | D. Orbital floor fracture |
177. “Dish Face” deformity is seen in this fracture because of1 Mark
A. Posterior and downward movement of maxilla | B. Anterior and forward movement of maxilla |
C. Anterior and downward movement of maxilla | D. Nasal complex fracture |
178. CSF rhinorrhea can be differentiated by all except1 Mark
A. High protein content | B. High glucose content |
C. Beta-2 transferrin | D. Tramline pattern |
179. CSF otorrhea is a feature of1 Mark
A. Fracture of cribiform plate | B. Fracture of ethmoid bone |
C. Fracture of occipital bone | D. Fracture of parietal part of temporal bone |
180. The most complication of CSF rhinorrhea is1 Mark
A. Ascending meningitis | B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis |
C. Blindness | D. Brain herniation |