NMCLE Questions Model Test 130 MCQs with Solution

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NMCLE Questions Model Test MCQs with solution

1. All of the following are motor branches of facial nerve supplying face except:1 Mark

A. TemporalB. Ophthalmic
C. ZygomaticD. Marginal mandibular

2.

Bones of vaults of skull & facial bones are:1 Mark

A. Membranous boneB. Cartilagenous bone
C. Membranocartilagenous boneD. Somatic bone

3. Which of the following coagulation factor doesn’t exists: 1 Mark

A. Factor IB. Factor II
C. Factor VID. Factor VII

4. All of the following are common micro-flora of oral cavity except:1 Mark

A. StreptococciB. Escherichia coli
C. BacteroidesD. Lactobacillus

5. Process by which articles/surfaces is made free of microorganism including spores is known as:1 Mark

A. DisinfectionB. Sterilization
C. AntisepsisD. Autoclave

6.

Which of the following antibiotic has potential to release histamine by directaction on mast cells to cause ‘Red man syndrome’:1 Mark

A. AzithromycinB. Nitrofurantoin
C. VancomycinD. Metronidazole

7. Sucrose is made up of:1 Mark

A. Glucose and glucoseB. Glucose and fructose
C. Glucose and galactoseD. Glucose and mannose

8. Which of the following method is used for the identification of RNA molecules:1 Mark

A. Northern blottingB. Southern blotting
C. Western blottingD. Autoradiography

9.

All of the followings are benign non-odontogenic conditions except:1 Mark

A. KeratoacanthomaB. Melanoma
C. LeukoplakiaD. Oral sub mucosal fibrosis

10.

TMJ is supplied mainly by:1 Mark

A. Masseteric and auriculotemporal nerveB. Superficial temporal nerve
C. Facial nerve peripheral branchD. Posterior auricular nerve

11.

The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to:1 Mark

A. Facilitate double blindingB. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
C. Ensure the groups are comparable on baseline characteristicsD. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment

12.

C.P.I.T.N is used in1 Mark

A. Biggest populationB. Smallest population
C. Diagnostic toolD. Screening purposes

13.

The primary action of topical fluoride is a:1 Mark

A. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatiteB. Decrease in the plaque bacteria
C. Form a reservoir in salivaD. Improve morphology of teeth

14.

Third generation sealants are cured by1 Mark

A. Self-curedB. Visible light
C. UV lightD. Natural light

15. Snyder’s test tell us the:1 Mark

A. Exact nature of microorganismsB. Combined acidogenic nature of microorganisms
C. Enamel dissolving capacity of salivaD. All of the above

16.

The permissible levels of E coli (number/ml) in potable water is:1 Mark

A. 20B. 15
C. 10D. O

17. A stipulated flat sum the patient has to pay towards the cost of service before it goes into:1 Mark

A. Ground insuranceB. Co-insurance
C. Co-paymentD. Deductible

18.  Elements of primary health care include all of the following except:1 Mark

A. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitationB. Providing essential drugs
C. Sound referral systemD. Health education

19. Global age for caries detection and survey is1 Mark

A. 5B. 15
C. 12D. 34

20. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except1 Mark

A. MeaslesB. Diptheria
C. TyphoidD. Gonorrhea

21. Best marginal integrity is obtained with1 Mark

A. GICB. Gold foil
C. Gold InlayD. Amalgam

22.

The chemical used to etch enamel is1 Mark

A. Zinc oxideB. methyl methacrylate
C. phosphoric acidD. eugenol

23. Shade determination of composite resin restoration on a tooth should be done;1 Mark

A. Before placement of rubber damB. On a dry tooth
C. Under bright lightD. Using a dry shade guide

24. Self etching primers1 Mark

A. Simultaneously etch and prime dentin and enamelB. Etches enamel only
C. Only bonds to enamelD. Only removes smear layer

25. Reverse bevel is given for1 Mark

A. Convenience formB. Resistance form
C. Lap sliding fitD. To remove the undermined enamel

26.

The enamel bevel of a gingival floor is done with:1 Mark

A. HatchetB. Chisel
C. HoeD. Curette

27. Instrument that has a 4-digit formula:1 Mark

A. Angle FormerB. Hoe
C. HatchetD. Spoon Excavator

28.

The number 12 in a 3 unit formula 12-6-8 indicates the blade is1 Mark

A. 12 mm in lengthB. 1.2 mm in length
C. 12 mm in widthD. 1.2 mm in width

29.

The most common complication of bleaching non vital tooth is1 Mark

A. Apical periodontitisB. Cervical resorption
C. DiscolorationD. Root resorption

30.

If the caries cone in enamel is larger or at least the same size as that in dentin then1 Mark

A. Backward cariesB. Forward caries
C. Reversible cariesD. Slow caries

31.

Most common cause of RCT failure1 Mark

A. Incomplete removal of PA cystB. Non-obturation of accessory canals
C. Incomplete debridement with improper obturationD. Large size of PA pathology

32.

Which of the following needle is used for irrigation?1 Mark

A. 23B. 25
C. 27D. 29

33.

Dentist prescribed home applied bleaching technique uses1 Mark

A. 35% Hydrogen PeroxideB. 10% Carbamide peroxide
C. 18% Hydrochloric acidD. Sodium perborate

34.

Apicoectomy is contraindicated in1 Mark

A. Extensive bone lossB. Over filled root canals
C. Lateral perforation at apical thirdD. Is not contraindicated

35.

Stabilisation of avulsed tooth requires1 Mark

A. 1-2 WeeksB. 2-3 Weeks
C. 4-6 WeeksD. More than 6 Weeks

36. Best Prognosis is for1 Mark

A. Fracture of Apical 3rd of rootB. Fracture in the Middle 3rd
C. Fracture in the coronal 3rdD. Prognosis is unrelated to the location of fracture

37.

Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when1 Mark

A. The pulp is necroticB. The pulp is vital
C. The pulp and root canals are calcifiedD. There is traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation

38.

The ideal method for restoring a fractured tooth is1 Mark

A. Open faced stainless steel crownB. Reattachment of fractured tooth segment
C. Strip crownD. Composite resin restoration

39.

A sinus associated with a periapical pathology requires:1 Mark

A. Broad spectrum antibioticsB. RCT with excision of sinus
C. RCT with Periapical curettageD. RCT with no treatment for sinus

40.

2nd generation apex locators are based on1 Mark

A. FrequencyB. Impedance
C. ResistanceD. Capacitance

41.

A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced forward andmedially by the action of the which muscle1 Mark

A. MasseterB. Medial pterygoid
C. Lateral pterygoidD. Temporalis

42.

The major local factor that predisposes mandibular bone toosteomyelitis is1 Mark

A. Unique shape of mandibleB. Reduced vascular supply
C. Impacted mandibular 3rd molarsD. Trauma to mandible

43. The extraoralradiograph that best shows the maxillary sinuses is1 Mark

A. OrthopantomographB. Lateral cephalogram
C. Water’s viewD. Reverse towne view

44.

During tracheostomy, the entry into the trachea is through1 Mark

A. 1st and 2nd tracheal ringB. 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring
C. 3rd and 4th tracheal ringD. 4th and 5th tracheal ring

45.

CARNOY’S solution is used in the treatment of 1 Mark

A. Dentigerous cystB. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Glandular odontogenic cystD. Traumatic bone cyst

46.

Treatment of fibrous dysplasia in a young 25 year old patientinvolving maxilla is best treated by1 Mark

A. Cosmetic recounteringB. Resection
C. CurettageD. Maxillectomy

47. An empty cavity inthe mandible with no lining is most likely to be1 Mark

A. Tooth follicleB. Dentigerous cyst
C. Periapical granulomaD. Idiopathic bone cyst

48. Hydrocortisoneacetate is injected in a painful arthritic TMJ to1 Mark

A. Decrease the inflammatory responseB. Decrease mandibular movement
C. Esthetic enhancementD. Arthrocentesis

49. The scalpel blademost commonly used for intraoral surgical procedure is 1 Mark

A. 10B. 11
C. 12D. 15

50.

The “hanging drop” appearance in the maxillary sinusradiograph indicates1 Mark

A. Blow in fracture of orbitB. Blow out fracture of orbit
C. Tumor in the maxillary sinusD. Haemorrhage in the maxillary sinus

51. Ecchymosis in themastoid region seen after a fracture of the petrous bone is known as1 Mark

A. Battle’s signB. Trapdoor sign
C. Corman signD. Guerin sign

52.

Eagles sign is the elongation of1 Mark

A. Styloid processB. Mastoid process
C. Coronoid processD. Alveolar process

53.

The typical railroad track scar is the result of 1 Mark

A. Primary closureB. Delayed wound closure
C. Surgical site infectionD. Dehiscence of the surgical site

54.

Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in1 Mark

A. Frey’s syndromeB. Gardner syndrome
C. Crocodile tear syndromeD. Mazabraud’s syndrome

55.

“Rule of 10” applies for management of 1 Mark

A. Cleft lipB. Cleft palate
C. Primary alveolar bone graftD. Secondary alveolar bone graft

56.

Which of the following is resorbable suture?1 Mark

A. SilkB. Vicryl
C. NylonD. Prolene

57.

Ludwig’s angina involves which spaces1 Mark

A. Submental spaceB. Sublingual space
C. Submandibular spaceD. All of the above

58.

Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis1 Mark

A. Tumor of the TMJB. Internal derangement of TMJ
C. Infection of middle earD. Trauma to condyle

59. Most common surgicalapproach used for ORIF of subcondylar fracture of mandible1 Mark

A. Vestibular approachB. Submandibular approach
C. Preauricular approachD. Retromandibular approach

60. Tracheostomy is usually done between1 Mark

A. 1st and 2nd tracheal ringB. 2nd and 3rd tracheal ring
C. 3rd and 4th tracheal ringD. 4th and 5th tracheal ring

61.  In acute attack of migraine, the drug of choiceis:1 Mark

A. ErgotamineB. Methylsergide
C. PropranololD. Caffeine

62.

Mucocutaneous lesion associated with neoplasiais:1 Mark

A. Erythema multiformeB. Cicatricial pemhigoid
C. Bullous lichen planusD. Paraneoplastic pemphigus

63.

Positive pathergy test is seen in:1 Mark

A. SarcoidosisB. Bechet’s disease
C. Heck’s diseaseD. Histoplasmosis

64.

Paul-Bunnell test is used for diagnosis of:1 Mark

A. Pernicious anemiaB. Sickle cell anemia
C. LeukemiaD. Infectious mononucleosis

65.

Characteristic ‘Tram line’ calcification inskull radiograph is observed in:1 Mark

A. Sturge weber syndromeB. Cleidocranial dysostosis
C. Paget’s diseaseD. Mc-Cune Albright syndrome

66.

Campbells lines are seen in:1 Mark

A. TransorbitalB. PA skull
C. SubmentovertexD. Occipitomental

67.

Light radiographic film is due to:1 Mark

A. OverdevelopingB. Overfixing
C. Directly putting in fixerD. Exposure to light

68. Compared to roundcollimator, rectangular collimator reduces patient’s skin surface exposure by1 Mark

A. 60%B. 45%
C. 30%D. 15%

69.

Reduction of salivary flow following irradiationis dose dependent. At what dose flow reaches essentially zero:1 Mark

A. 4000 radB. 5000 rad
C. 6000 radD. 7000 rad

70.

The wavelength of X-ray photons depends upon:1 Mark

A. Milli amperageB. Kilovoltage
C. Exposure timeD. Number of electrons in cathode stream

71.

The strength of collagen is due to:1 Mark

A. GlycineB. Hydroxyproline
C. ProlineD. Hydroxyglycine

72.

The disease characterized by insidious onset and absolute increase in circulating RBCs and total blood volume :1 Mark

A. LeukopeniaB. Osler’s disease
C. Mediterranean diseaseD. Aplastic anemia

73.

In amyloidosis of tongue, amyloid is primarilydeposited in:1 Mark

A. Stromal connective tissueB. Cells of surface epithelium
C. Nuclei of striated muscle cellsD. Cytoplasm of striated muscle cells

74.

All of the following affects absorption ofcalcium except:1 Mark

A. Citric acidB. Retinoic acids
C. PhytatesD. Oxalates

75.  Reilly bodies are inclusion bodies seen in hurler’s disease within:1 Mark

A. NeutrophilsB. Monocytes
C. FibroblastD. Lymphocytes

76. White patch is seen in buccal mucosa consisting of pseudomycelium and chlamydospores with desquamated epithelium adjacent toit, the likely diagnosis is:1 Mark

A. CryptococcosisB. Coccidiomycosis
C. HistoplasmosisD. Candidiasis

77.

One of the virus given below is not theteratogenic virus:1 Mark

A. RubellaB. Cytomegalovirus
C. Herpes simplexD. Measles

78. Warthin Finkeldey multinucleated giant cells are pathognomonic features of:1 Mark

A. RubellaB. Wharthin’s tumor
C. ToxoplasmosisD. Pleomorphic adenoma

79. Lesions of oral tuberculosis are associated with all of the following except:1 Mark

A. Central cessationB. Hyaline degeneration
C. Giant cells in centerD. Epitheloid cells

80.

Tiny linear or arc shaped bodies, amorphous, brittle and eosinophillic in reaction, found in association with some odontogenic cysts are called:1 Mark

A. Civatte bodiesB. Russell bodies
C. Rushton bodiesD. Guarneri bodies

81.

During “Eastman correction” incephalometry, ……….. angle is adjusted.1 Mark

A. ANBB. FMA
C. IMPAD. Y- axis

82.

Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by1 Mark

A. Birth to five yearsB. 5 – 6 years
C. 6-7 yearsD. 7-10 years

83.

Scammon’sgrowth curve. False is1 Mark

A. Neural tissues-Most of the growth is completed by 6 years.B. Lymphoid tissues – growth reaches 200% by age 13 and regresses afterwards
C. Genital tissues – most of the growth is completed by the age of pubertyD. None of the above

84.

Treatment of diastema because of a thick labial frenum is done:1 Mark

A. After frenectomyB. Before eruption of canines
C. After eruption of caninesD. Before frenectomy

85. A child who had a congenital defect of cleft lip and cleft palate is most likely to suffer from which kind of malocclusion1 Mark

A. Bilateral posterior cross biteB. A collapsed anterior mandibular arch c) Protrusion and spacing of maxillary anterior teeth
C. A collapsed anterior mandibular archD. Class II division I malocclusion

86.

The effect of enlarged Adenoids on the maxillary growth is by1 Mark

A. Narrowing of maxillaB. Widening of maxilla
C. Palatal plane tipped upwards at PNSD. Palate descends down

87.

Tweed’s triangle denotes:1 Mark

A. The position of maxilla and mandible to each otherB. The angle between the mandibular plane and mandibular incisors
C. Relationship between maxillary central and mandibular central incisorD. Profile of an individual

88.

Long face syndrome patient with increase lower facial height, the palatal plane will be:1 Mark

A. Posteriorly downwardB. Upward posteriorly
C. Downward anteriorlyD. No change

89.

A patient suffers from contraction of maxillary arch, labioversion of maxillary incisors with deep overbite and overjet. These are features of:1 Mark

A. Class I malocclusionB. Class II div 2 malocclusions
C. Class II div 1 malocclusionD. Class III malocclusion

90. A malocclusion is characterized by protrusion ofmaxilla, labioversion of maxillary incisors deep overbiteand overjet. These are typical characteristic of whichmalocclusion1 Mark

A. Class IB. Class II Div 1
C. Class II Div 2D. Class III

91.

Alveolar grafting in a patient of cleft should ideally be placed?1 Mark

A. Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and before cuspid eruptionB. Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and after cuspid eruption
C. After maxillary expansion , cross bite correction and after cuspid eruptionD. After maxillary expansion , cross bite correction and before cuspid eruption

92.

In which of the following patient, there is 10-20 fold increase risk of Leukemia during infancy?1 Mark

A. Downs syndromeB. Pierre robins syndrome
C. Fragile X syndromeD. None

93.

Shy and submissive child is the result of parents who are:1 Mark

A. EmpatheticB. Over indulgent
C. UnaffectionateD. Over protective

94.

In which of the following condition G.A and conscious sedation is not required?1 Mark

A. Emotionally unstable and apprehensiveB. Cerebral palsy
C. Controlled epileptic patientD. Mental retardation

95. Fear is:1 Mark

A. A primary emotion acquires soon after birthB. A primary emotion acquired in utero
C. A primary emotion acquires several years after birthD. Not a primary emotions

96.

Bacteria responsible for causing nurshing bottle caries are?1 Mark

A. Lactobacillus onlyB. Streptococcus, lactobacillus and veillonella
C. Streptococcus and lactobacillusD. Streptococcus , lactobacillus and Neisseria

97.

The teeth present in the oral cavity of a newborn are called?1 Mark

A. Natal teethB. Ghost teeth
C. Infantile teethD. Camel teeth

98.

Height of maxilla is increased by the1 Mark

A. Growth of the palatal vaultB. Growth of the maxillary suture
C. Growth of alveolar processD. Any of the above

99.

The 2nd most common  supernumerary teeth is1 Mark

A. Para molarsB. Mesiodens
C. Distal to 3rd molar in maxillaD. Distal to mandibular 3rd molar

100.

Which of the following molar relationship is the most common in primary dentition?1 Mark

A. Mesial stepB. Flush terminal plane
C. Distal stepD. Cannot be predicted

101.

An isolated area in which root is denuded of bone is intact and covered only by periosteum and overlying gingiva is called1 Mark

A. FenestrationB. Dehiscence
C. Infracrestal pocketD. Hemiseptum defect

102.

Gingiva is attached to enamel by1 Mark

A. HemidesmosomesB. Desmosomes
C. Tight JunctionD. Gap Junction

103.

The primary etiologic factor in the development of furcation defect is1 Mark

A. CalculusB. Plaque
C. Cemental cariesD. Root infection

104. Drug which reaches maximum concentration in gingival fluid is:1 Mark

A. TetracyclineB. Penicillin
C. ErythromycinD. Sulphonamide

105.

One common radiographic finding in clinical gingivitis is1 Mark

A. Vertical bone lossB. Normal bone pattern
C. Horizontal bone lossD. Increase in bone density

106. Gingival enlargement in pregnancy is termed:1 Mark

A. Periodontal abscessB. Angio granuloma
C. Gingival abscessD. Wegenere’s granulomatosis

107.

The least effect on the prognosis of a periodontal disease is1 Mark

A. Suppuration from the pocketB. Furcation involvement
C. Alveolar bone lossD. Co-operation and motivation of the patient

108.

Pathologic migration of tooth occurs:1 Mark

A. Towards the bone resorption areaB. Always from the bone resorption area
C. Inciso occlusal directionD. Axio inclined direction

109.

Juvenile periodontitis is a1 Mark

A. Definite genetic diseaseB. Immunological defect
C. Neutrophil chemotactic defectD. Neutrophil adhesion defect

110.

The unbalanced insulin-dependent diabetes which leads to accumulation of ketones is associated with one of the following specific character of breath odor/smell1 Mark

A. Rotten eggs smellB. Sweet odor
C. Smell of rotten applesD. Fish odor

111. The anterior guidance between maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth has a direct influence on the direction of1 Mark

A. Tongue movementB. Mandibular movement
C. Palatoglossus movementD. Lip movement

112. The Apex of the Bonwill’s Triangle is located at the?1 Mark

A. Anterior tip of the incisive papillaB. Upper central incisor’s contact point
C. Anterior most point on the chinD. Lower central incisor’s contact point

113. Non-anatomic teeth are indicated in: 1 Mark

A. Flat ridgeB. Knife-edge ridge
C. Poor muscular controlD. All the above

114. The average intercondylar distance which is adequate forcomplete dentures is:1 Mark

A. 110 mmB. 115 mm
C. 120 mmD. 140 mm

115. The lingual flange area in molar region in mandibularcomplete denture is determined by1 Mark

A. MylohyoidB. Hyoglossus
C. GenioglossusD. Geniohyoid

116. The average root surface area of maxillary first molar is(in mm2)1 Mark

A. 431B. 400
C. 426D. 433

117. The main disadvantage of metal ceramic restoration ascompared to porcelain jacket crown is1 Mark

A. Less strengthB. Poor colour matching
C. More porousD. Less retentive

118. Ridge lap design of pontic is indicated for the replacementof a 1 Mark

A. Maxillary first molarB. Maxillary central incisor
C. Mandibular first molarD. Mandibular second premolar

119. Gingival finish lines are placed1 Mark

A. Supra/subgingivally according to needB. For better cleansing
C. Subgingivally onlyD. Supragingivally only

120. A sprue in wax pattern should be placed:1 Mark

A. At right angleB. At acute angle
C. At obtuse angleD. It depends upon type of wax pattern

121. Functional impressions of class I partial edentulousarches may be made by1 Mark

A. Hindel methodB. Reline method
C. Fluid wax impression methodD. All of the above

122. Most common complaint of the patient with a thickpalatal bar in a RPD is:1 Mark

A. Distortion under occlusal stressB. Difficulty in pressing the food backward and swallowing
C. Poor dissipation of force due to rigidityD. Loss of taste sensation

123. The only one flexible minor connector is1 Mark

A. that connecting clasp assembly to major connectorB. that connecting indirect retainer assembly to the major connector
C. that joining the denture base to major connectorD. that approach arm of a bar type clasp

124. Indirect retention is designed to1 Mark

A. Stabilize tooth borne RPDB. Engage an undercut area of the abutment tooth
C. Resist tissue ward movement of an extension base partial dentureD. Resist dislodgement of an extension base partial denture in occlusal direction

125. Guiding plane in RPD should be located at:1 Mark

A. In between edentulous spaceB. Edentulous areas
C. Abutment surface adjacent to an edentulous areaD. Abutment area

126. Stress breakers are not used in partial dentureconstruction because:1 Mark

A. They are expensiveB. Increase the vertical dimension
C. They are difficult to design and fabricateD. Harmful effect on the abutment

127. The first step involved in relining a distal extension RPD is:1 Mark

A. Ensuring the fitting of the frameworkB. Checking for retention
C. Checking for stabilityD. Checking for proper path of insertion

128. Which of the following is an example of push back typeclasp1 Mark

A. Circumferential claspB. Bar clasp
C. Embrasure claspD. Indirect retainer

129. Which part of the distal extension removable partialdenture provides the greatest resistance to movementand torquing of the abutment teeth?1 Mark

A. RestB. Base
C. Retentive claspD. Minor connector

130. For long span distal extension bases where rigidity iscritical the major connector of choice is:1 Mark

A. Palatal strapB. Antero posterior palatal bar
C. Closed horse shoeD. Horse shoe

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